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Archy [21]
2 years ago
13

A rectangular sheet of metal measures 8 inches by 11 inches. The metal is worth $3.00 per square inch. How much is the sheet of

metal worth?
Mathematics
1 answer:
krek1111 [17]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$264.00

Step-by-step explanation:

8x11x3

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Blank% of 50 shirts is 35 shirts
Alex787 [66]

Answer: 70%

Step-by-step explanation:

A percentage is a way of writing a fraction, but with a denominator of  

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This indicates that there is a fraction.

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7 0
2 years ago
80.8=8(m+2.8) what is this answer
Aleonysh [2.5K]
The answer is 7.3, If you use the order of operations, When you divide 58.4 by 8 you get 7.3
8 0
3 years ago
What is the quotient of (3+i)(3-i)/-(2+2i)^2 expressed in simplest form
ddd [48]
The answer is 5i/4 :)))
6 0
3 years ago
True or false please help
NeX [460]

Answer:

true

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Stacy uses a spinner with six equal sections numbered 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 to play a game. Write a probability model for this ex
allsm [11]

Answer:

We estimate to have 8.33 times the number 6 in 50 trials.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.

P(X=k) = \binom{50}{k}(\frac{1}{6})^k(\frac{5}{6})^{50-k}

We will estimate the number of times that she spins a 6 as the expected value of this random variable.

Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.

Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have \frac{50}{6} number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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