the answer is the third one
Answer:
6194.84
Step-by-step explanation:
Using the formula for calculating accumulated annuity amount
F = P × ([1 + I]^N - 1 )/I
Where P is the payment amount. I is equal to the interest (discount) rate and N number of duration
For 40 years,
X = 100[(1 + i)^40 + (1 + i)^36 + · · ·+ (1 + i)^4]
=[100 × (1+i)^4 × (1 - (1 + i)^40]/1 − (1 + i)^4
For 20 years,
Y = A(20) = 100[(1+i)^20+(1+i)^16+· · ·+(1+i)^4]
Using X = 5Y (5 times the accumulated amount in the account at the ned of 20 years) and using a difference of squares on the left side gives
1 + (1 + i)^20 = 5
so (1 + i)^20 = 4
so (1 + i)^4 = 4^0.2 = 1.319508
Hence X = [100 × (1 + i)^4 × (1 − (1 + i)^40)] / 1 − (1 + i)^4
= [100×1.3195×(1−4^2)] / 1−1.3195
X = 6194.84
Answer:
option B
Step-by-step explanation:
We can see in the graph that the function has two values of x where the value of y goes to infinity: x = -6 and x = 6.
These points where the value of the function goes to infinity usually are roots of the polynomial in the denominator of a fraction (when the values of x tend to these values, the denominator of the fraction tends to 0, so we have a discontinuity in the function).
So the option that represents a function that have these points in x = -6 and x = 6 is the function in option B.
The other options show functions that have only one point that goes to infinity.
Answer: 250=70x+50
Step-by-step explanation:
250 being the total would go at the equal sign
250=
And since it says 70 Per car that means it would be 70x so
250=70x
50 dollars in tips is a total so
250=70x+50 is your equation
