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earnstyle [38]
2 years ago
10

Which are examples of long-term goals? Select all that apply.

Business
1 answer:
algol132 years ago
6 0

Answer:

d

Explanation:

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The manager can invest in an additional project that would require $40,000 investment in additional assets and would generate $6
Makovka662 [10]

Answer:

d. If the manager invests in the additional project, residual income of the division will increase.

Explanation:

RI = Operating Income - (Operating Assets x Minimum Required Rate of Return)

with adding the additional project

Operating Income: $60000 +6000 =$66000

Operating Assets: $375000+$40000 =$415000

Residual income =$66000-14%*$415000 =$7900

Consider the attached information.

7 0
3 years ago
​(Cost of​ debt) Belton Distribution Company is issuing a ​$1 comma 000 par value bond that pays 8.9 percent annual interest and
ioda

Answer:

After tax cost of debt is 7.69%

Explanation:

The after tax cost of debt can be computed by first of all determining the pre-tax cost of debt .

The pre-tax of debt is the yield to maturity computed using the rate formula in excel as follows:

=rate(nper,pmt.-pv,fv)

nper is the number of times the bond would pay coupon interest over the entire bond life ,which is 15 years multiplied by 2=30

pmt is the semi-annual interest which is $1000*8.9%/2=$44.5

pv is the current price of the bond at $962

fv is the face value of the bond at $1000

=rate(30,44.5,-962,1000)=4.69%

this is the semi-annul yield ,annual yield is 9.38%

The 9.38% is the pretax

after tax cost of debt=9.38%*(1-0.18)=7.69%

0.18 is the 18% tax rate

5 0
3 years ago
At the beginning of the current year, Sandy Brewer had a zero basis in her 38 shares of stock in Lindlee, an S corporation, a ze
Alona [7]

Answer:

As in her worthless note,Sandy has a zero adjusted basis. Her bad debt deduction is Nil according to Section 166 (b).

Section 166(g)(1) states that her capital loss realized on the deemed sale of this stoke is also nil because of zero adjusted basis in her worthless stock.

According to Reg. Sec.1.1366-2(a)(5) if all of her stock is disposed by an S corporation shareholder and loss carryforward attributable to the Section 1366 (d) basis. Limitaitons are permanently disaalowed.

Hence, her $7,400 ordinary loss carryforward can never be deducted by Sandy.

Sandy has no 2012 tax consequences from worthlessness of her Lindlee investments

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If Wild Widgets, Inc., were an all-equity company, it would have a beta of 0.9. The company has a target debt-equity ratio of .4
Veronika [31]

Answer:

a. 6.5%

b. 13.06%

c. 10.91%

Explanation:

a.

Cost of debt of a bond is yield to maturity. Yield to maturity is the rate of return that a investor actually receives or a borrows actually pays on a bond. It is long term return or payment which is expressed in annual term.

Formula for yield to maturity is as follow

Yield to maturity = [ C + ( F - P ) / n ] / [ (F + P ) / 2 ]

By placing values in the formula

Assuming the bond face value is $1,000

Yield to maturity = [ (1000x7.2) + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / [ ( 1,000 + $1,090 ) / 2 ]

Yield to maturity = [ $72 + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = [ $72 - $4.5 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = $67.5 / $1,045

Yield to maturity = 6.5%

So, the cost of Debt is 6.5%

b.

As 0.9 is the unlevered beta, We need Levered beta due to restructuring of capital.

Beta Levered = Beta Unlevered x ( 1 + ( 1 - tax rate ) x Debt / Equity)

Beta Levered = 0.9 x ( 1 + ( 1 - 0.35 ) x 0.4 )

Beta Levered = 1.134

Cost of equity can be calculated using CAPM

CAPM calculated the expected return on an equity investment based on the risk free rate, market premium and risk beta of the investment.

Formula for CAPM is as follow

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market premium)

As we know the Risk premium is the difference of market return and risk free rate.

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market Return - Risk free Rate )

Ra = Rf + β ( Rm - Rf )

Ra = 4.1% + 1.134 ( 12% - 4.1% )

Ra = 13.06%

Cost of Equity is 13.06%

c.

WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.

According to WACC formula

WACC = ( Cost of equity x Weightage of equity )+ ( Cost of debt ( 1- t) x Weightage of debt )

Placing the values in formula

If the debt to equity 0.4  the equity value should be 1 and total capital is 1.4 ( 1 + 0.4 )

WACC = ( 13.06% x 1 / 1.4 )+ ( 6.5% ( 1- 0.35) x 0.4 / 1.4 ) = 9.71% + 1.2% = 10.91%

WACC is 10.91%

4 0
2 years ago
Janine is an accountant who makes $30,000 a year. Robert is a college student who makes$8,000 a year. All other things equal, wh
Bingel [31]

Answer:

Janine is an accountant who makes $30,000 a year. Robert is a college student who makes$8,000 a year. All other things equal, who is more likely to stand in a long line to get a cheap concert ticket?

Robert; his opportunity cost is lower

Explanation:

Robert has loss of potential gain from the alternative available, his low income will made him to queue in order to get the concert ticket

5 0
3 years ago
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