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IRISSAK [1]
3 years ago
13

Do you like 1----10 cuteeeeee

Mathematics
1 answer:
Sphinxa [80]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

what

Step-by-step explanation:

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3.2 cm on the map correspond to 4 km in the actual distance?
geniusboy [140]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, 3.2 centimeters on the map is equivalent to 4 kilometers. We can use unitary method to find, how many kilometer/kilometers each centimeter corresponds to. Using the unitary method: Therefore, the scale of map represents 1.25 kilometers for each centimeter.

6 0
4 years ago
A(n)=3/2(-2)^(n-1). What is the 3rd term in the sequence?
Angelina_Jolie [31]

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

Substitute n for 3

A(n) = 3/2(-2)^(n-1)

A(3) = 3/2(-2)^(3-1)

A(3) = 3/2(-2)²

A(3) = 3/2(4)

A(3) = 12/2

A(3) = 6

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is 2.333333 in fraction form
iragen [17]
x=2.(3)\ \ \ /\cdot10\\\\10x=23.(3)\\\\10x-x=23.(3)-2.(3)\\\\9x=21\ \ \ /:9\\\\x=\frac{21}{9}\\\\x=\frac{7}{3}\\\\x=2\frac{1}{3}
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The length of a rectangle is 6.7 more than 2 times the width. If the perimeter of the rectangle is 57.2 cm, what are its dimensi
Gemiola [76]
From the description, you can get two equation that looks like this:

L= 2*W+6.7cm
Perimeter= 57.2cm

Using perimeter formula, you can put the first and second equation like this:

perimeter= 2L + 2W
57.2cm= 2(2*W+ 6.7)+2W
57.2cm= 4W+ 13.4+ 2W
57.2- 13.4= 6W
W= 43.8/6= 7.3 cm

L= 2W+ 6.7
L= 2*7.3 + 6.7= 21.3
Answer: <span>A. Length=21.3 cm; width=7.3 cm</span>
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A bag contains red balls and white balls. If five balls are to be pulled from the bag, with replacement, the probability of gett
Ipatiy [6.2K]

Answer:

Percentage of balls which are red = 80%.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the probability of drawing a red ball  be x then the probability of drawing a white ball is 1-x.

There are 5C3 = 10 ways of getting 3 reds in 5 draws so  the probability of this is 10* x^3 * (1 - x)^2.

The probability of getting 1 red in 5 draws = 5C1 * x (1-x)^4.

The  first probability is 32 times the last.

So we have the equation:

10x^3(1 - x)^2  /  5x(1 - x)^4  = 32

2x^2 / (1 - x)^2 = 32

2x^2 = 32(1 -x)^2

2x^2 = 32( 1 - 2x + x^2)

2x^2 = 32 - 64x + 32x^2

30x^2 - 64x  + 32 = 0

15x^2 - 32x + 16 = 0

(5x - 4)(3x - 4) = 0

x = 0.8, 1.333...

The probability must be < 1 so x = 0.8  = 80%.

6 0
3 years ago
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