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Mashcka [7]
3 years ago
12

Straight-Line: Amortization of bond discount LO P2 Skip to question [The following information applies to the questions displaye

d below.] Legacy issues $640,000 of 8.5%, four-year bonds dated January 1, 2019, that pay interest semiannually on June 30 and December 31. They are issued at $570,443 when the market rate is 12%. Problem 14-4A
Required:
1. Prepare the January 1 journal entry to record the bonds' issuance
2. determine the total bond interest expense to be recognized over the bonds' life.
Business
1 answer:
natima [27]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Legacy

1. Journal Entry:

January 1:

Debit Cash $570,443

Debit Bonds Discount $69,557

Credit Bonds Payable $640,000

To record the issuance of the bonds at a discount.

2. Total bond interest expense to be recognized over the bonds' life:

= $287,160

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

January 1, 2019

Face value of bonds issued = $640,000

Price of bonds =                       $570,443

Bonds discount =                      $69,557 ($640,000 - $570,443)

Coupon interest rate = 8.5%

Market interest rate = 12%

Maturity period = 4 years

Interest payment = semiannual on June 30 and December 31

With straight-line amortization of bonds discount, the semiannual amortization will be = $8,695

Semi-annual interest payment = $27,200 ($640,000 * 4.25%)

Semi-annual interest expense = $35,895 ($27,200 + $8,695)

Annual interest expense = $71,790

1. Transaction Analysis

January 1:

Cash $570,443 Bonds Discount $69,557 Bonds Payable $640,000

2. Total bond interest expense to be recognized over the bonds' life:

= $287,160 ($71,790 * 4) or ($35,895 * 8)

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Dmitry [639]

Answer:

A discriminating monopoly is a single entity that charges different prices—typically, those that are not associated with the cost to provide the product or service—for its products or services for different consumers. Non-discriminating monopolies, on the other hand, do not engage in such a practice.

4 0
3 years ago
The labor-force participation rate is? a. 47.1 percent. b. 50.2 percent. c. 65.9 percent. d. 70.2 percent.
il63 [147K]

The labor-force participation rate is 70.2 percent
therefore the correct option is D

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The labor force is made up of both employed people and unemployed people, and the unemployment rate is calculated by dividing the number of jobless people by the total labor force. If a person works for compensation or runs their own business for at least an hour any day of the week, including the twelfth of the month, they are regarded to be employed. If a person works for compensation or runs their own business for at least an hour any day of the week, including the twelfth of the month, they are regarded to be employed. In a family-run firm, individuals who put in at least fifteen hours of unpaid work are also regarded as employees. Employed people include those who are temporarily away from their work due to a vacation, illness, inclement weather, or other personal reasons. Those who worked full-time (35 hours or more during the survey week) and those who worked part-time are both considered to be in the employed category.

To learn more about Labor Force
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Complete Question
The labor-force participation rate is? a. 47.1 percent. b. 50.2 percent. c. 65.9 percent. d. 70.2 percent, e. none of the above

4 0
2 years ago
Search... Unlock all answers JOIN FOR FREE jswagballerlife4060 01/08/2020 Business College answered LO 5.3Direct material costs
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

$130,000

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the value of the inventory transferred to the next department

First step is to calculate the Cost per unit

Using this formula

Cost per unit = Direct material costs + Direct labor costs + Overhead

Let plug in the formula

Cost per unit=$3+$5+(100%*$5)

Cost per unit = $3 + $5 + $5

Cost per unit = $13

Second step is to calculate the inventory transferred using this formula

Inventory transferred = Beginning inventory + Started Inventory - Ending inventory .

Let plug in the formula

Inventory transferred = 2,000 + 9,000 - 1,000

Inventory transferred = 10,000 units

Now let calculate the value of the inventory transferred

Using this formula

Value of inventory transferred = Inventory transferred × Cost per unit

Let plug in the formula

Value of inventory transferred = 10000 × $13

Value of inventory transferred = $130,000

Therefore the value of the inventory transferred to the next department is $130,000

8 0
3 years ago
I prefer situations where everyone has to work together to reach a goal. Agree or Disagree?
Cloud [144]
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4 0
3 years ago
Hotaling Corporation is analyzing a capital expenditure that will involve a cash outlay of $146,040. Estimated cash flows are ex
Molodets [167]

Answer:

The solution shows that a rate of return of 10% which provides an annuity factor of 4.868 generates an NPV which is equal to zero. Thus, our IRR or internal rate of return is 10%.

Explanation:

The IRR or internal rate of return is the rate at which NPV or Net Present Value of the investment becomes zero. We are provided with the initial outlay for the project and the annual cash inflows along with time period. Using the annuity factors given below, we need to find out the factor which makes the NPV zero. The NPV is calculated as follows,

NPV = Present Value of Cash Inflows - Initial Outlay

We can try out each annuity factor and see what NPV is generates.

1. 6% rate (Annuity factor = 5.582)

NPV = (30000 * 5.582)  -  146040

NPV = $21420

2. 8% rate (Annuity factor = 5.206)

NPV = (30000 * 5.206)  -  146040

NPV = $10140

3. 10% rate (Annuity factor = 4.868)

NPV = (30000 * 4.868)  -  146040

NPV = $0

So, from the above solution we can see that a rate of return of 10% which provides an annuity factor of 4.868 generates an NPV which is equal to zero. Thus, our IRR or internal rate of return is 10%

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3 years ago
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