Answer:
Interest expense 18,284.17 debit
Premium on BP 1,965.83 debit
Cash 20,250 credit
Explanation:
procceds 461,795
face value 450,000
premium on bonds payable 11,795
As the cash received exceed the face value then, the bonds were isued at premium.
This will be amortized over the bonds life
3-year bonds with semiannual payment: 6 payment in total
amortization per payment:
11,795 / 6 = 1.965,83
The will post:
the cash disbursement in favor of the bondholder:
450,000 x 9%/2 = 20,250
amortization (1,965.83)
interest expense: 18.284,17
Answer: see affixed, a document containing the solution
Explanation:
Answer:
$15,000
Explanation:
Closing retained earnings is the accumulated value of an entity`s profit reserve from its earnings from both current and past accounting periods.Closing retained earnings is calculated by deducting dividend paid from earnings after tax of the current year and adding the balance to opening retained earnings.
= Opening retained earnings + (Earnings after tax - Dividend paid)
Based on the information supplied, the closing retained earnings will be:
$
Service Revenue 10,000
Total Expenses (6,000)
Operating profit 4,000
Dividend <u> (1,000)</u>
Retained Earnings 3,000
Retained Earnings b/f <u> 12,000</u>
Closing Retained Earnings <u> 15,000</u>
Note: No information in regard of tax, so the operating profit is used as profit after tax.
C i belive im pretty sure sure.
Answer:
The answer is false
Explanation:
Base on the scenario been described in the question, comparing the two firm and saying there will not reach into a conclusion to which firm is better manage is false, this is because the difference in debt is a result of better management, and this could be the cause of Firm A's higher profit margin. So the claim was false
