Answer:
9
Step-by-step explanation:
perfect square sholud be 
so (w+3)*(w+3) is perfect square and extention of it is =>w*w+6w+9
Answer:
y= -4 x+3
Step-by-step explanation: A(1, -1)
the equation is y - y (A)=m*( x-x(A) )
y-(-1)=-4(x-1)
y+1=-4x+4
y= -4x+4-1
y=-4x+3
y=-4x+4-1
Given the two options above, in order to come up with the best plan we have to calculate the future value of money in each plan.
compound interest is given by:

Option 1
p=$500
r=2%=0.02
t=1 year

Option 2
p=$500
r=2/12=1/6
n=1*12=12
hence:

=$509.09
Comparing the two plans above, option 1 is the best.
b] Option 1 is the best because she will secure $510 as compared to option 2 which has interest rate that reduces her amount by $1 after one year due to annual charges. The total amount of money she will have at the end of the plan is $510.
Answer:LetAbe the event that the person is taking the drug. We are told thatP(A) = 0.05.LetBbe the event that the person has migraines. We are told thatP(B) = 0.1.Further, we are told thatP(B|A) = 0.3. Using the rules for conditional probability,P(A|B) =P(A∩B)P(B)=P(B|A)P(A)P(B)=0.3·0.050.1=0.15.The probability that a migraine sufferer takes the drug is 15%.
Step-by-step explanation: