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Naya [18.7K]
3 years ago
6

What is the fraction equivalent to 282%?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Over [174]3 years ago
7 0
The answer above is correct 41/50
maksim [4K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: 41/50

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Write down the percent divided by 100 like this:

282% = 282/100

Step 2: Multiply both top and bottom by 10 for every number after the decimal point:

As 282 is an integer, we don't have numbers after the decimal point. So, we just go to step 3.

Step 3: Simplify (or reduce) the above fraction by dividing both numerator and denominator by the GCD (Greatest Common Divisor) between them. In this case, GCD(282,100) = 2. So,

(282÷2)/(100÷2) = 141/50 when reduced to the simplest form.

As the numerator is greater than the denominator, we have an IMPROPER fraction, so we can also express it as a MIXED NUMBER, thus 282/100 is also equal to 2 41/50 when expressed as a mixed number.

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