Answer:
mean=14, variance=9.1
Step-by-step explanation:
for binomial distribution
n=number of outcomes
p=probability of succcess
q=probability of faliure
p+q=1
any probability given is always 'p'
mean=np
n=40
p=0.35
mean=40*0.35
mean=14
variance=npq
p+q=1
q=1-p
q=1-0.35
q=0.65
variance=40*0.35*0.65
variance=9.1
The answer is $41.44.
You take $895× 4.63%= $41.4385.
Number 19 I think is if you add the awnser to one of the numbers you where subtracting and you get the other number you where subtracting you are right like...
Lets say you had the problem 3-2 which is obviously 1 but if you did 2+1 it's 3 so that's how you check.
Answer:
Follows are the solution to this question:
Step-by-step explanation:
Please find the complete question in the attachment file.
Using formula:
Calculating the value of standard error:
Calculating the value of test statistic:
Formula:
Calculating the value of Degree of freedom:
Because the P-value is a 2-tailed test = 0.0018
Thus they reject H0, because of P-value < 0.05,
Yeah, certain data show clearly that the means are different.
2m+3v=23
4m+8v=56
-2(2m+3v=23)
-4m-6v=-46
4m+8v=56
2v=10
v=5
plug in v
2m+15=23
2m=8
m=4
movies=$4
video games=$8