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skad [1K]
3 years ago
13

Mohit, an assembly line worker, had applied for a position in the production department of a food manufacturing company. During

the selection process, he was asked to pick up marbles using forceps and place them perfectly on little grooves. This test enabled the examiners to test Mohit's hand–eye coordination and arm–hand steadiness. In this scenario, Mohit most likely took a _____.
Business
1 answer:
lozanna [386]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

psychomotor test

Explanation:

Since the test enabled the examiners to test Mohit's hand–eye coordination and arm–hand steadiness. In this scenario, Mohit most likely took a psychomotor test.

<u>Psychomotor is the relationship between cognitive functions and physical movement. Psychomotor learning is demonstrated by physical skills such as movement, coordination, manipulation, dexterity, etc</u>

<u>Psychomotor test has to do with the origination of movement in conscious mental activity. </u>

<u />

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The financial analysis component of a business plan is to describe _____.
umka2103 [35]
The financial analysis component of a business plan is to describe the viability, stability and profitability of a business, sub-business or project.
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8 0
3 years ago
Assume that the reserve ratio is 20% and banks in the system are loaning out all their excess reserve. If people collectively ca
Alex17521 [72]

Answer:

C. decreased by $40 billion

Explanation:

For computing the lending ability, first we have to determine the money multiplier which is shown below:

We know that

Money multiplier = 1 ÷ reserve ratio

                            = 1 ÷ 20%

                            = 5

So, the total cash would be

= $10 billion × $5

= $50 million

Now the lending ability would be

=$50 billion × (1 - 20%)

= $50 billion × 0.80

= $40 billion

6 0
2 years ago
Who want to teach me for be a hacker <br> im a good boy
mestny [16]

Ok ill teach ya then

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
Physicians' Hospital has the following balances on December 31, 2021, before any adjustment: Accounts Receivable = $44,000; Allo
ivanzaharov [21]

Answer:

Entry: 1. Dr bad debts expense  5500

                    Cr Allowance for uncollectible accounts  5500

Explanation:

1.Account receivable =  $44000

Allowance for uncollectible accounts(Dec,31 2021) = $1100

44000* 15% = 6600 - 1100 = $5500 Allowance for uncollectible accounts

2.  Bad debts expense =  (44000* 15%) = 6600

3. Uncollecible accounts = (Open) Allowance for bad debts + Current year Allowance.

                         =  1100 + 6600 = $7700.

4. 44000 - 7700 = $36300 net account receiable

6 0
2 years ago
Instructions: Please make sure that you show all your work when solving the problems. Feel free to make any assumptions whenever
My name is Ann [436]

Answer:

Explanation:

From the given information:

The current price = \dfrac{Dividend(D_o) \times (1+ Growth  \ rate) }{\text{Cost of capital -Growth rate}}

15 = \dfrac{0.50 \times (1+ Growth rate)}{8\%-Growth rate}

15 \times (8 -Growth \  rate) = 0.50 +(0.50 \times growth  \  rate)

1.20 - (15 \times Growth \ rate) = 0.50 + (0.50 \times growth \ rate)

0.70 = (15 \times growth  \ rate) \\ \\ Growth  \ rate = \dfrac{0.70}{15.50} \\ \\ Growth  \ rate = 0.04516 \\ \\ Growth  \ rate \simeq 4.52\% \\ \\

2. The value of the stock  

Calculate the earnings at the end of  5 years:

Earnings (E_o) \times Dividend \  payout  \ ratio = Dividend (D_o) \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) \times 35\% = \$0.50 \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) =\dfrac{\$0.50}{35\%} \\ \\ = \$1.42857

Earnings (E_5) year \  5  = Earnings (E_o) \times (1 + Growth \ rate)^{no \ of \ years} \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year \  5  = \$1.42857 \times (1 + 12\%)^5 \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year \ 5  = \$2.51763

Terminal value year 5 = \dfrac{Earnings (E_5) \times (1+ Growth \ rate)}{Interest \ rate - Growth \ rate}

=\dfrac{\$2.51763\times (1+0.04516)}{8\%-0.04516}

=$75.526

Discount all potential future cash flows as follows to determine the stock's value:

\text{Value of stock today} =\bigg( \sum \limits ^{\text{no of years}}_{year =1} \dfrac{Dividend (D_o) \times 1 +Growth rate ) ^{\text{no of years}}}{(1+ interest rate )^{no\ of\ years} }

+ \dfrac{Terminal\ Value }{(1+interest \ rate )^{no \ of \ years}} \Bigg)

\implies \bigg(\dfrac{\$0.50\times (1 + 12\%)^1) }{(1+ 8\%)^{1} }+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^2 }{(1+8\% )^{2}}+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^3 }{(1+8\% )^{3}}  + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^4 }{(1+8\% )^{4}} + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^5 }{(1+8\% )^{5}} + \dfrac{\$75.526}{(1+8\% )^{5}} \bigg )

\implies \bigg(\dfrac{\$0.5600}{1.0800}+\dfrac{\$0.62720}{1.16640}+\dfrac{\$0.70246}{1.2597}+\dfrac{\$0.78676}{1.3605}+\dfrac{\$0.88117}{1.4693}+ \dfrac{\$75.526}{1.4693} \bigg)

=$ 54.1945

As a result, the analysts value the stock at $54.20, which is below their own estimates.

3. The value of the stock  

Calculate the earnings at the end of  5 years:

Earnings (E_o) \times Dividend payout ratio = Dividend (D_o) \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) \times 35\% = \$0.50 \\ \\ Earnings (E_o) =\dfrac{\$0.50}{35\%}\\ \\ = \$1.42857

Earnings (E_5) year  \ 5  = Earnings (E_o) \times (1 + Growth \ rate)^{no \ of \ years} \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year  \ 5  = \$1.42857 \times (1 + 12\%)^5 \\ \\ Earnings (E_5) year \  5  = \$2.51763 \\ \\

Terminal value year 5 =\dfrac{Earnings (E_5) \times (1+ Growth \ rate)\times dividend \ payout \ ratio}{Interest \ rate - Growth \ rate}

=\dfrac{\$2.51763\times (1+ 7 \%) \times 20\%}{8\%-7\%}

=$53.8773

Discount all potential cash flows as follows to determine the stock's value:

\text{Value of stock today} =\bigg( \sum \limits ^{\text{no of years}}_{year =1} \dfrac{Dividend (D_o) \times 1 + Growth rate ) ^{\text{no of years}}}{(1+ interest rate )^{no \ of\ years} }+ \dfrac{Terminal \ Value }{(1+interest \ rate )^{no \ of \ years }}   \bigg)

\implies \bigg( \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1 + 12\%)^1) }{(1+ 8\%)^{1} }+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^2 }{(1+8\% )^{2}}+ \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^3 }{(1+8\% )^{3}}  + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^4 }{(1+8\% )^{4}} + \dfrac{\$0.50\times (1+12\%)^5 }{(1+8\% )^{5}} + \dfrac{\$53.8773}{(1+8\% )^{5}} \bigg)

\implies \bigg (\dfrac{\$0.5600}{1.0800}+\dfrac{\$0.62720}{1.16640}+\dfrac{\$0.70246}{1.2597}+\dfrac{\$0.78676}{1.3605}+\dfrac{\$0.88117}{1.4693}+ \dfrac{\$53.8773}{1.4693} \bigg)

=$39.460

As a result, the price is $39.460, and the other strategy would raise the value of the shareholders. Not this one, since paying a 100% dividend would result in a price of $54.20, which is higher than the current price.

Notice that the third question depicts the situation after 5 years, but the final decision will be the same since we are discounting in current terms. If compounding is used, the future value over 5 years is just the same as the first choice, which is the better option.

The presumption in the second portion is that after 5 years, the steady growth rate would be the same as measured in the first part (1).

8 0
3 years ago
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