Answer:
the investment with large cash flow early
Explanation:
This can be illustrated with an example.
There are 2 investments A and B
The cash flows of A =
Cash flow in year 1 = $50,000
Cash flow in year 2 = 0
Cash flow in year 3 = 0
The cash flows of B =
Cash flow in year 1 = 0
Cash flow in year 2 = 0
Cash flow in year 3 = 50,000
Discount rate for both investment is 40%
Present value of A = $35,714.29
Pesent value for B = $18,221.57
It can be seen that the investment with the higher cash flow early has a higher present value
Answer:
62,200 allowance ending
Explanation:
allownce 5,000 credit
<u>Because the bad debt is calculate over the sales,</u> the bad debt expense is the result of that estimated, without considering the beginning balance of the allowance.
22% of net credit sales will be uncollectible:
260,000 x 22% = 57,200
<u>Now ending balance will be beginning + uncollectible for the period</u>
5,000 beginning
57,200 uncollectible for the period
62,200 allowance ending
Answer:
The quick ratio can be worked out as below;
Explanation:
Quick ratio=Current Assets excluding inventory stocks/Current liabilities
Current Assets=210+800
Current liabilities=$1,260
Quick Ratio =($210+4800)/$1,260
Quick Ratio=1.25
