Answer:
15.3125
Step-by-step explanation:
i gotchu
I think it is b because probability of 2 is 1/6 then probability of 4 is 1/6. If you times them together 1/6x1/6 it will equal 1/36 so b
Answer is C
I did it before
Answer:
1: 2.8
Step-by-step explanation:
15:42
Divide each side by 15
15/15 : 42/15
1: 2.8
You would divide the 2/3 by 4 which would be 1.6 recurring and then put that back into a fraction which would be 1/6. I'm not sure if his is correct but this what is learnt ♡♡chyna