Answer:
16
Step-by-step explanation:
Let me know if you need an explanation!
Answer: it would be g because if you distribute 9, you end up with x+72 and the bottom one is 9•8 (also 72)+x
Answer:
<h2><em>
n = 11</em></h2>
Step-by-step explanation:
n + 1 = 4(n - 8)
n + 1 = 4n - 32 [Multiply 4 times (n-8)]
1 = 3n - 32 [Subtract 1n from both sides]
33 = 3n [Add 32 to both sides]
3n = 33
<h2><u>
n = 11</u></h2>
CHECK:
Does n + 1 = 4(n - 8) when n = 11?
n + 1 = 4(n - 8)
11 + 1 = 4(11 - 8)
11 + 1 = 4(3)
12 = 12 YES
Answer: 1/6
Step-by-step explanation: There are 4 primes. So the probability for the first draw is 4/9. Since the card is not replaced, the second probability is 3/8. 3/8 * 4/9 is 12/72, which simplifies into 1/6.
Answer:
420 is the answer of yhis lenthiest question u nedd to aubract them by 1000 and 580
Step-by-step explanation:
Just eubtract them
