Answer:
The appropriate amount of Bad Debt Expense is $3,345.20.
Explanation:
The appropriate amount of Bad Debt Expense can be calculated as follows:
Bad debt expense = (Percentage of accounts receivable not yet due it will not collect * Accounts receivable not yet due) + (Percentage of receivables up to 30 days past due it will not collect * Amount of receivables up to 30 days past due) + (Parentage of receivables of receivables greater than 30 days past due it will not collect * Amount of receivables greater than 30 days past due) - Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (credit) ……………………… (1)
Substituting the relevant values into equation (1), we have:
Bad debt expense = (7% * $7,500) + (20% + $2,300) + (46% * $2,000) - $400 = $3,345.20
Therefore, the appropriate amount of Bad Debt Expense is $3,345.20.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
The highest mountain could fit into the deepest ocean basin.
Answer:
c. fiscal and monetary policies that impact aggregate demand do not impact the natural rate of unemployment.
Explanation:
Short run Philips Curve is downward sloping, due to inverse relationship between unemployment rate & inflation rate. High economic activity implies more inflation rate, less unemployment. Low economic activity implies less inflation rate, more unemployment.
However, the inverse relationship between inflation & unemployment is only in short run & not in long run. In long run, this inflation - unemployment trade off doesn't exist. So, any fiscal or monetary policy affecting aggregate demand & consecutively inflation rate, do not affect the natural rate of unemployment (combination of frictional & structural unemployment rate) in long run.
Answer:
1,200 shares held at a cost basis of $37.50
Explanation:
Since there are 1,000 shares are purchased
and the stock dividend is 20%
So the number of shares after the dividend is
= 1,000 × (1 + dividend percentage)
= 1,000 × (1 + 0.20)
= 1,000 × 1.20
= 1.200
And, the price per share is
= $44 + $1
= $45
So, the cost basis would be
= $45 ÷ 1.20
= $37.50
hence, the tax status of the investment is 1,200 shares held for cost at $37.50 basis
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "B": Depreciation reduces the book value of assets
.
Explanation:
Depreciation shows how much and the value of the assets was used up. This also aims to balance an asset's cost to the revenue that the asset has helped the business gain. Used as an income tax deduction, depreciation calculations offer businesses an annual allowance for the use and deterioration of tangible (physical) assets.
<em>Depreciation reduces the book value of assets because, after the depreciation calculation is done, the amount computed decreases the current value of the asset it represents.</em>
