I think is going to be
A=1
B=43
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Start with a deck of 52 cards. Draw 1 card. Probability of drawing a diamond first:

Now draw another single card from the deck, which now contains 51 cards. Probability of drawing a spade:

Draw 1 last card. The deck has 50 cards left, and 12 of these are diamonds. Probability of drawing a diamond:

So the probability of drawing a diamond, then a spade, then another diamond is
Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:
As the graph is passing via (2,1) and (-6,3)

Answer:
The answer is 6
Step-by-step explanation:
The circumstance of a circle is given by the formula