Answer:
960
Step-by-step explanation:
You have to figure out what 1/4th of 640 is, which is 160.
It says that number is 1/6th of boys, so you multiply by the inverse.
160x6 = 960
Answer:
its now proved
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
kg,otslitalitzlrluralurapur
15 percent I'm pretty sure correct me if wrong plz
Let's set up some simultaneous equations. Let the number of nickels be n, and the number of quarters be q. Now I'm from England so I had to look up the value of a nickel (I could guess the quarter though to be 25c), but apparently it's 5c
Okay we know that the total value of the coins is 150. This gives:
25q + 5n = 150
Rearranging to make n the subject:
n = 30 - 5q
Next, we use the second statement:
n = 2q - 5
Substituting this into the first equation:
2q - 5 = 30 - 5q
7q = 35
q = 5
Putting this value for q into the first equation:
n = 30 - 5(5) = 5
Hence he has 5 of each coin. I hope this helps :)
