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Savatey [412]
3 years ago
6

All changes saved

Mathematics
1 answer:
slamgirl [31]3 years ago
4 0
Your answer would be :A


Explanation: He claims to have had 9 sales “per day” for the week. When really it was only for 2 days. That being Thursday and Tuesday! The Mode number of the sales is 9; which is only higher from most of the days.


I hope this helps. Let me know if I am wrong plz. It’s 1 in the morning for me right now. Lol Have a blessed day bud.
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amber has 4 peices of fruit 2 of the peices of fruit are bannanas right 2 fractions that discribe th fraction of fruit that are
Sedbober [7]
Total pieces of fruit = 4
Pieces of bananas = 2

Fraction of bananas = 2/4 = 1/2

Answer: 1/2

8 0
3 years ago
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Anna buys 12 pens and 20 pencils for a total cost of $16. One pen costs $0.40 more than a pencil. What would one pencil and one
vladimir2022 [97]

It is given in the question that

Anna buys 12 pens and 20 pencils for a total cost of $16. One pen costs $0.40 more than a pencil.

Let the cost of pencil is $ x .

Therefore cost of pen is

$(x+0.40)

According to the question

12(x+0.40)+20x =16

Distributing 12 and combining like terms, we will get

12x+4.8+20x=16\\32x = 11.2\\x = 0.35

Therefore cost of pencil is $0.35 and cost of pen is

0.35+0.40=0.75

3 0
3 years ago
Which word indicates that the integer is "negative"?
sweet-ann [11.9K]
Loss
gain means you’re getting more, which is positive
7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Find the value of 2 numbers if their sum is 9 and their difference is 1
Sloan [31]
Makes no sense.

p.s i am a fourth grader
5 0
3 years ago
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consider there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time. Therate of producing a faulty pin from M
blondinia [14]

Answer:

0.03333

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that there are three machines. All of the machines can produce 1000 pins at a time.

Chance for any machine is thus equaly likely = 1/3

The rate of producing a faulty pin from Machine 1 be 10%, from Machine 2 be 20% andfrom Machine3 be 5%.

Machine             I                     II              III                  total

Faulty              0.10                0.20        0.05

Prob                0.3333           0.3333    0.3334             1

Faulty*prob    0.03333         0.06666  0.16665         0.26664

Thus probability  that a produced pin will be faulty and it will be from the firstmachine

= 0.03333

6 0
2 years ago
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