All categories

3 years ago

Necesito el promedio de esto:140-184-165-326=

Mathematics

1 answer:

Ann [662]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

140 + 184 + 165 + 326 = 815/4 = 203.8

86 + 36 + 45 + 126 = 293/4 = 73.3

14 + 36 + 9 + 84 = 143/4 = 35.8

9 + 6 + 7 + 4 + 3 + 6 = 35/6 = 5.8

25 + 42 + 59 + 62 + 18 = 206/5 = 41.2

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in

If there are 19 successful outcomes in a sample with a size of 25, what is the sample proportion

alexandr1967 [171]

Answer: the answer is .76

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

Use the Change of Base Formula to evaluate log5 92. Then convert log5 92 to a logarithm in base 3. Round to the nearest thousand

ANTONII [103]

I was thinking that the answer could be

2.810; log3 21.903

OR

<span> 2.810; log3 55.2 </span>

So,<span> log5 of 92 is between 2.5 and 3 Correct answer is A</span>

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Give an example of a function from the set of integers to the set of positive integers that is g

BaLLatris [955]

The function ...

... g = |x| + 1

will map any integer x into the set of positive integers g.

3 0

3 years ago

pencils come in cartons of 24 boxes. a school bought 50 cartons of pencils for the start of school. each box of pencils cost $2.

tensa zangetsu [6.8K]

The answer would be 2400 dollars

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The probability that a grader will make a marking error on any particular question of a multiple-choice exam is 0.15. If there a

sashaice [31]

Answer:

$P(X=0)=(10C10)(0.15)^{0} (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969$

$P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X$

$P(X=0)=(nCn)(p)^{0} (1-p)^{n-0}=(1-p)^n$

$P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

The complement rule is a theorem that provides a connection between the probability of an event and the probability of the complement of the event. Lat A the event of interest and A' the complement. The rule is defined by: $P(A)+P(A') =1$

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.15)$

what is the probability that no errors are made?

For this case means that all the questions were correct so we want this probability:

$P(X=0)=(10C10)(0.15)^{0} (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969$

what is the probability that at least one error made?

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 1)$

And we can use the complement rule:

$P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X$

If there are n questions and the probability of a marking error is p rather than 0.15, give expressions for the probabilities of no errors and at least one error

$P(X=0)=(nCn)(p)^{0} (1-p)^{n-0}=(1-p)^n$

$P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X$

8 0

3 years ago