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The average number of annual trips per family to amusement parks in the UnitedStates is Poisson distributed, with a mean of 0.6

IrinaK [193]

Answer:

a) 0.5488 = 54.88% probability that the family did not make a trip to an amusement park last year.

b) 0.3293 = 32.93% probability that the family took exactly one trip to an amusement park last year.

c) 0.1219 = 12.19% probability that the family took two or more trips to amusement parks last year.

d) 0.8913 = 89.13% probability that the family took three or fewer trips to amusement parks over a three-year period.

e) 0.1912 = 19.12% probability that the family took exactly four trips to amusement parks during a six-year period.

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

$\mu$ is the mean in the given interval.

Poisson distributed, with a mean of 0.6 trips per year

This means that $\mu = 0.6n$ , in which n is the number of years.

a.The family did not make a trip to an amusement park last year.

This is P(X = 0) when n = 1, so $\mu = 0.6$ .

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-0.6}*(0.6)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.5488$

0.5488 = 54.88% probability that the family did not make a trip to an amusement park last year.

b.The family took exactly one trip to an amusement park last year.

This is P(X = 1) when n = 1, so $\mu = 0.6$ .

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-0.6}*(0.6)^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.3293$

0.3293 = 32.93% probability that the family took exactly one trip to an amusement park last year.

c.The family took two or more trips to amusement parks last year.

Either the family took less than two trips, or it took two or more trips. So

$P(X < 2) + P(X \geq 2) = 1$

We want

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2)$

In which

$P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.5488 + 0.3293 = 0.8781$

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.8781 = 0.1219$

0.1219 = 12.19% probability that the family took two or more trips to amusement parks last year.

d.The family took three or fewer trips to amusement parks over a three-year period.

Three years, so $\mu = 0.6(3) = 1.8$ .

This is

$P(X \leq 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)$

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.1653$

$P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.2975$

$P(X = 2) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{2}}{(2)!} = 0.2678$

$P(X = 3) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{3}}{(3)!} = 0.1607$

$P(X \leq 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.1653 + 0.2975 + 0.2678 + 0.1607 = 0.8913$

0.8913 = 89.13% probability that the family took three or fewer trips to amusement parks over a three-year period.

e.The family took exactly four trips to amusement parks during a six-year period.

Six years, so $\mu = 0.6(6) = 3.6$ .

This is P(X = 4). So

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 4) = \frac{e^{-3.6}*(3.6)^{4}}{(4)!} = 0.1912$

0.1912 = 19.12% probability that the family took exactly four trips to amusement parks during a six-year period.

4 0

3 years ago

Help I'm Timed!! PLZ!!!!!!!!<br> the question is in the pic!

VladimirAG [237]

The answer is X is greater than -2! <3

6 0

3 years ago

How do you find the additive inverse of an inte

IRISSAK [1]

I couldn't understand your question, but I can give you the definition of an additive inverse. Additive Inverse is an opposite of a sign like +\- or -/+ For division the additive inverse is multiplication. Your question said inte so i assumed that means integer, so the additive inverse of an integer is the negative and the positive signs like -1/1 or 1/-1 :)

8 0

2 years ago

The bakers made 25 each of lemon, apple, and

g100num [7]

Answer:

The answer is 600 pies

Step-by-step explanation:

25 times the 3 flavors is 75 pies per hour, multiplied by 8 is 600 pies

4 0

2 years ago

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