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jeka94
3 years ago
6

Explain whether the following statement is true or false. The function notation f-1(x) means 1/f(x)

Mathematics
1 answer:
lesya [120]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

f-1(x) otherwise known as the inverse of f(x) is the mathematical equivalent as 1/f(x).

Being inverse simply means that it "reverses" the operation that was applied to it with the original function .

For example: suppose f(x) = x+1, then if x = 1, f(1) = 1+1 =2

Now if we do f-1(x) or 1/f(x), then 1/f(1) = 1/1 +1 = 1/2

So, 2/1 is in fact the inverse of 1/2.

Hence, f-1(x) is the same as 1/f(x)

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