Answer:
b=0 would appreciate brainliest
Step-by-step explanation:
Otherwise, no solution for this equation. You cannot isolate the variable a; its solution value can be anything, but you still find b=0.
2a+b=2a
b+2a=2a
b+2a-2a=2a-2a
b+0=0
b=0
1. Which becomes 2(1) + 0 = 2(1)
2. 2 + 0 = 2 :
3. 2 = 2. Here we can observe the equality.
Answer:
See below ~
Step-by-step explanation:
<u>Identities Needed</u>
- sec a = 1 / cos a
- cosec a = 1 / sin a
- cot a = 1 / tan a
<u />
<u>Proving</u>
- (sec²a)(cosec²a) = tan²a + cot²a + 2
<u>Taking the LHS</u>
- sec²a x cosec²a
- 1/cos²a x 1/sin²a
- 1/(sin²a)(cos²a) -(Equation 1)
<u>Taking the RHS</u>
- tan²a + cot²a + 2
- tan²a + cot²a + 2(tana)(cota)
- (tana + cota)²
- (sina/cosa + cosa/sina)²
- (sin²a + cos²a / sinacosa)²
- (1/sinacosa)²
- 1/(sin²a)(cos²a) -(Equation 2)
∴ Equation 1 = Equation 2
∴ <u>LHS = RHS</u>
Hence, proved.
Answer: 
Step-by-step explanation:
By definition, a direct varition is expressed as following:

Then, <em>y </em>is directly proportional to <em>x </em>and <em>k</em> is the constant of variation.
Therefore, given the direct variation:

You must solve for the variable <em>y </em>as you can see below:

Therefore, as you can see, the constant of variation is the following:

Answer:
$0.0646 is the expected value of the draw.
Step-by-step explanation:
1 nickel = 5 cents
1 dime = 10 cents
1 penny = 1 cent
Total number of coins = 
Probability that a nickel is selected is = 14/35
Probability that a dime is selected is = 15/35
Probability that a penny is selected is = 6/35
So, the expected value of the draw will be =

= 6.457 cents ≈6.46 cents
So, in dollars it is =
= $0.0646
So, $0.0646 is the expected value of the draw.
Answer:
C
Step-by-step explanation: C is right because multiplicative inverse is the opposite of a number so the opposite of -4 is 4.