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Anna007 [38]
3 years ago
5

The following labor standards have been established for a particular product: Standard labor-hours per unit of output 9.9 hours

Standard labor rate $13.70 per hour The following data pertain to operations concerning the product for the last month: Actual hours worked 7,700 hours Actual total labor cost $102,410 Actual output 1,000 units What is the labor efficiency variance for the month
Business
1 answer:
topjm [15]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

-$30,250 favorable

Explanation:

labor efficiency variance = (standard quantity - actual quantity) x standard labor cost

  • actual quantity = 7,700 hours
  • standard quantity = 9.9 hours x 1,000 units = 9,900
  • standard labor cost = $13.70

labor efficiency variance = (7,700 - 9,900) x $13.70 = -$30,250 favorable variance

the variance is favorable, because less hours were actually used than forecasted

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To be considered of high quality, a product must: Select one: a. meet high specifications b. meet customers' stated expectations
masha68 [24]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

meet safety standards

4 0
3 years ago
In the short-run, the Sure-Screen T-Shirt Company is producing 500 units of output. Its average variable costs are $2.00 and its
Dmitry [639]

Answer:

the correct answer is $1,250

Explanation:

(The average variable costs + the average fixed costs) *  Production units

             =

The firms total costs

$2.00 + $0.50 =$2.50

$2.50 * 500= $1,250

GOOD LUCK

8 0
3 years ago
A company has a cost of debt (before tax) of 5.5% and a cost of equity of 12.8%. In addition, the company has a target capital s
alexira [117]

Answer:

10.12%

Explanation:

Wacc = (D / V)rd (1 - t) + (E / V) re

(D/V) = 0.3

Rd = before tax cost of debt = 5.5%

T = tax rate = 30%

(E / V) = 0.7

Re = marginal cost of equity = 12.8%

= (0.3 x 5.5% × 0.7) + (0.7 x 12.8%) = 1.155% + 8.96% = 10.12%

I hope my answer helps you

4 0
3 years ago
The Richmond Corporation uses the weighted-average method in its process costing system. The company has only a single processin
Digiron [165]

Answer:

$95,400

Explanation:

Step 1 : Find  the equivalent units of production in Ending Work in Progress

Materials = 18,000 x 100 % = 18,000 units

Conversion costs = 18,000 x 60 % = 10,800 units

Step 2 : Calculate the Cost of units in Ending Work in Progress

Cost of units in Ending Work in Progress = 18,000 x $2.75 + 10,800 x $4.25

                                                                    = $95,400

Conclusion :

The ending work in process inventory was $95,400.

3 0
2 years ago
Liang Company began operations in Year 1. During its first two years, the company completed a number of transactions involving s
horsena [70]

Answer:

1). Account receivables A/c Dr. $1,345,000

                 To sales revenue  A/c $1,345,000

(Being the sales revenue is recorded)

Cost of good sold A/c Dr. $975,700

          To merchandise inventory A/c $975,700

(Being the cost is recorded)

2. Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c Dr. $19,400

       To accounts receivable A/c $19,400

(Being the written off is recorded)

3. Cash A/c Dr. $670,800

           To accounts receivables A/c $670,800

(Being cash received is recorded

1. .Account receivable A/c Dr. $1,529,400

                    To sales A/c $1,529,400

(Being the sales revenue is recorded)

Cost of good sold A/c Dr. $1,332,100

          To merchandise inventory A/c $1,332,100

(Being the cost of goods sold  is recorded)

2. Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c Dr. $27,000

        To Account receivable A/c $27,000

(Being the written off amount is recorded)

3. Cash A/c Dr. $1,391,600

            To account receivable A/c $1,391,600

(Being the cash received is recorded)

4. Bad-debts expense A/c Dr. $28,000

(765,600 × 1% + 20,344)

    To allowance for doubtful accounts A/c $28,000

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

Working note:

Ending Receivables = (654800 + 1529400 - 27,000 - 1,391,600) = $765,600

Total Receivables of 1st Year = 1,345,000 - 19,400 - 670,800 = $654,800

Before Adjustment Ending Allowance Balance = 65,4800 × 1% - 27,000

= 6,548 - 27,000

= 20,344 Debit BalanceThe journal entries are shown below:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follows:-

Journal Entries for 1st year

1). Account receivables A/c Dr. $1,345,000

                 To sales revenue  A/c $1,345,000

(Being the sales revenue is recorded)

Cost of good sold A/c Dr. $975,700

          To merchandise inventory A/c $975,700

(Being the cost is recorded)

2. Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c Dr. $19,400

       To accounts receivable A/c $19,400

(Being the written off is recorded)

3. Cash A/c Dr. $670,800

           To accounts receivables A/c $670,800

(Being cash received is recorded)

4.  Bad-debts expense A/c Dr. $38,389

(1,345,000-19,400-670,800) × 2.90+ $19,400

          To allowance for doubtful accounts A/c $38,389

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

Journal Entries for 2nd year

1. .Account receivable A/c Dr. $1,529,400

                    To sales A/c $1,529,400

(Being the sales revenue is recorded)

Cost of good sold A/c Dr. $1,332,100

          To merchandise inventory A/c $1,332,100

(Being the cost of goods sold  is recorded)

2. Allowance for doubtful accounts A/c Dr. $27,000

        To Account receivable A/c $27,000

(Being the written off amount is recorded)

3. Cash A/c Dr. $1,391,600

            To account receivable A/c $1,391,600

(Being the cash received is recorded)

4. Bad-debts expense A/c Dr. $28,000

(765,600 × 1% + 20,344)

    To allowance for doubtful accounts A/c $28,000

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

Working note:

Ending Receivables = (654800 + 1529400 - 27,000 - 1,391,600) = $765,600

Total Receivables of 1st Year = 1,345,000 - 19,400 - 670,800 = $654,800

Before Adjustment Ending Allowance Balance = 65,4800 × 1% - 27,000

= 6,548 - 27,000

= 20,344 Debit Balance

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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