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shtirl [24]
3 years ago
8

Why is the Munich Agreement an example of appeasement?

History
1 answer:
Mama L [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Western democracies have given way to Hitler's demands to annex the Sudetenland. ... It also promoted the violent policies of Hitler. Why did Britain and France, following the invasion of Poland, wage war on Germany

Explanation:

or puts this It was an indication of complacency and it was a deal in which the Western powers decided that Hitler would get everything he desired, so that the other countries (France, United Kingdom) did not wish to offer, but nevertheless agreed to give because they hoped that they could gain something in this manner.

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In the first place, after initial defeats and mistakes, the patriots of the Continental Army and the militias fought bravely and with determination to have a free homeland. Secondly, the support of France was fundamental to beat the British: supplies, weapons, ammunitions, the engagement of the French navy and troops. Thirdly, the British had the disadvantage of having long lines of supply, it was hard and costly to send more troops and supplies from Britain, and particularly after the French and Spanish blockade. And we can safely quote as a fourth reason the great human, moral and intellectual quality of the Founding Fathers who were able to overcome their personal differences in order to reach a common vision with shared values of the future free nation.

Explanation:

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3 years ago
What right could you invoke to protect yourself from a police officer with no probable cause entering your house without a warra
Nadusha1986 [10]

The right answers is:

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Which viewpoint did the North have during the Civil War?
yanalaym [24]

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B.

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