Why is the Munich Agreement an example of appeasement?

History

1 answer:

Mama L [17]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Western democracies have given way to Hitler's demands to annex the Sudetenland. ... It also promoted the violent policies of Hitler. Why did Britain and France, following the invasion of Poland, wage war on Germany

Explanation:

or puts this It was an indication of complacency and it was a deal in which the Western powers decided that Hitler would get everything he desired, so that the other countries (France, United Kingdom) did not wish to offer, but nevertheless agreed to give because they hoped that they could gain something in this manner.

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