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Zanzabum
2 years ago
6

CMS Energy Corp has an operating cycle of 157 days. The firm's days' sales in inventory is 87 days. How much does the firm have

in receivables if it has credit sales of $600,000?
a. $126,922
b. $115,068
c. $81,171
d. $195,183
Business
1 answer:
ella [17]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

b. $115,068

Explanation:

The computation of the receivables is shown below:

As we know that

operating cycle = days sale of inventory + days sales outstanding

157 days = 87 days + days sales outstanding

So,  

credit days is

= 157 days - 87 days

= 70 days

Now

receivables is

= $600,000 × 70 ÷ 365

= $115,068

Therefore the correct option is second

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A company investing borrowed funds expects to earn a return greater than the interest it will pay for the use of funds is using
Naddika [18.5K]

Answer:

Financial leverage

Explanation:

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When a company is looking for funds for its activities there are 3 options they can use: equity, debt, or lease.

Use of equity is the only option where no extra cost is incurred for use of funds.

When using debt or lease cost of use is incurred. The business will need to engage in an activity that will give it revenue above cost of debt.

This practice is called use of financial leverage.

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3 years ago
Insurance is a financial service that allows a
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<span>consumer to share liability with a company.</span>
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3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Boise Timber co. computes its break-even point strictly on the basis of cash expenditures related to fixed costs. Its total fixe
stellarik [79]

Answer: 1,125,000

Explanation:

Break even point simply means when the total cost and the total revenue are equal.

Firstly, we need to calculate the cash related fixed cost for Boise Timber Co. This will be:

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= $6,000,000 - (25% × $6,000,000)

= $6,000,000 - (0.25 × $6,000,000)

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8 0
2 years ago
Crich Corporation uses direct labor-hours in its predetermined overhead rate. At the beginning of the year, the estimated direct
Rama09 [41]

Answer:

$1,524 underapplied

Explanation:

Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated Manufacturing Overhead ÷ Estimated Activity.

                                                  = $560,324 ÷ 22,060

                                                  = $25.40

Applied Overheads = Predetermined overhead rate × Actual Activity

                                 = $25.40 × 22,000

                                = $558,800

<em>Where,</em>

Actual Overheads are  $560,324 (given)

<em>Conditions :</em>

If Actual Overheads > Applied Overheads, we say overheads are under-applied and if Actual Overheads < Applied Overheads, we say that overheads are over-applied.

<em>Therefore ,</em>

In our case, Actual Overheads : $560,324 > Applied Overheads : $558,800. Overheads have been under-applied by $1,524 ($560,324 - $558,800).

8 0
2 years ago
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Bingel [31]

Answer:

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Robert; his opportunity cost is lower

Explanation:

Robert has loss of potential gain from the alternative available, his low income will made him to queue in order to get the concert ticket

5 0
3 years ago
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