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statuscvo [17]
3 years ago
6

What is 1/4 of £42 and what is 2/5 of £13.50

Mathematics
2 answers:
xxTIMURxx [149]3 years ago
5 0
Divide 42 by 4 for one fourth. Divide 13.5 by 5 and multiply that by 2.
Alchen [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The correct answers are :

Part A = £10.50

Part B = £5.40

Step-by-step explanation:

'of' means multiply here. So, we will simply multiply the numbers.

A. what is 1/4 of £42

\frac{1}{4}\times42= 10.5 or 10\frac{1}{2} = £10.50

B.  what is 2/5 of £13.50

\frac{2}{5}\times13.50= 5.4 = £5.40

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The second option

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2 years ago
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Ede4ka [16]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
The table below shows the price in dollars for the number of roses indicated is the price proportional to the number of roses ex
makvit [3.9K]

Answer:

Price of roses is proportional to the number of roses.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the price of roses are proportional to the number of roses.

Equation representing this phenomenon will be,

P = k(R) ⇒ k = \frac{P}{R}

where 'P' = price of the roses

R = Number of roses

k = Proportionality constant

If we substitute the values of P and R and we get the same value of constant 'k', then the equation will be true.

For R = 3 and P = $9  

k = \frac{9}{3}

k = 3

For R = 6 and R = 18

k = \frac{18}{6}

k = 3

K is same in both the conditions, therefore, Price of roses are proportional to the number of roses.

6 0
3 years ago
A leprechaun places a magic penny under a girls pillow. The next night there are 2 magic pennies under her pillow. The following
kiruha [24]

Answer:

<em>After </em><em>47</em><em> days she will have more than 90 trillion pennies.</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

At the beginning there was 1 penny. At the second day the amount of pennies under the pillow became 2.

The amount of pennies doubled each day. So the series is,

1,2,4,8,16,32,.....

This series is in geometric progression.

As the pennies from each of the previous days are not being stored away until more pennies magically appear so the sum of series will be,

S_n=\dfrac{a(r^n-1)}{r-1}

where,

a = initial term = 1,

r = common ratio = 2,

As we have find the number of days that would elapse before she has a total of more than 90 trillion, so

\Rightarrow 90\times 10^{12}\le \dfrac{1(2^n-1)}{2-1}

\Rightarrow 90\times 10^{12}\le \dfrac{2^n-1}{1}

\Rightarrow 90\times 10^{12}\le 2^n-1

\Rightarrow 2^n\ge 90\times 10^{12}+1

\Rightarrow \log 2^n\ge \log (90\times 10^{12}+1)

\Rightarrow n\times \log 2\ge \log (90\times 10^{12}+1)

\Rightarrow n \ge \dfrac{\log (90\times 10^{12}+1)}{\log 2}

\Rightarrow n \ge 46.4

\Rightarrow n\approx 47


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3 years ago
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Answer:

What types of nouns should be used in effective process writing?

Step-by-step explanation:

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