Answer:
Hire more labor and increase the output.
Explanation:
Because Rear Gear is a profit-maximizing firm, it will hire more labor and increase the output.
This is because, when the firm has purchased a new sewing machine, they need to produce more in order to capture the fixed cost of production (i.e. cost of sewing machine). In order to do so, they need to hire more workers or labour to increase the total output.
Answer:
Ans. The equilibrium rate of return on a 1-year Treasury bond is 6.65% (please check the explanation)
Explanation:
Hi, well, this type of bonds exist so people can avoid the time value of money risk, in other words, to keep money save from inflation and provide a risk free return at the same time. From a part of the text I can tell that the person who wrote it wanted to add up the risk free rate and the inflation rate, that is 3.05%+3.60% =6.65%.
This is why I wrote this answer, but the truth is that since they are both effective rates (risk free rate and inflation), they need to be add as effective rates, that is:

Therefore


So the real equilibrium rate of return is 6.76%, but for the sake of the question, I wrote 6.65%.
Best of luck.
Answer:
Minimising risk of loss
Explanation:
One of the most significant values of investment is to guarantee that you have a extended portfolio. The key advantage of constructing a portfolio is that it helps in Limiting danger of misfortune. If one venture performs ineffectively over a specific period, different speculations may perform better over that equivalent period, decreasing the potential misfortunes of your venture portfolio from concentrating all your capital under one kind of speculation.
The job of the Federal Reserve System is to control the supply of money in the United States. Although it might seem like the Federal Reserve System prints the money as well, but this is in fact not true. The U.S. Treasury prints paper and coin currency and the Federal Reserve System distributes the money globally.
Answer:
30.92%
Explanation:
You find the answer by calculating the cost of equity using two methods; Dividend discount model and CAPM
<u>Dividend discount model;</u>
cost of equity; r = (D1/P0) +g
whereby, D1 = next year's dividend = 3.00
P0= current price = 13.65
g = dividend growth rate = 11% or 0.11 as a decimal
r = (3/13.65) + 0.11
r = 0.2198 + 0.11
r= 0.3298 or 32.98%
<u>Using CAPM;</u>
r = risk free + beta (Market risk premium)
r = 0.049 + (2.8 * 0.0856)
r = 0.049 + 0.2397
r = 0.2887 or 28.87%
Next, find the average of the two cost of equities;
=(32.98% + 28.87% )/2
= 30.92%