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Aliun [14]
3 years ago
14

VI. Here we consider the paradox of saving one last time in the context of the AS-AD model. Suppose the economy begins with outp

ut equal to its natural level. Then there is a decrease in consumer confidence, as households attempt to increase their saving, for a given level of disposable income. a. In AS-AD and IS-LM diagrams, show the effects of the decline in consumer confidence in the short run and the medium run. Explain why curves shift in your diagrams. b. What happens to output, the interest rate, and the price level in the short run
Business
1 answer:
Nonamiya [84]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The solution to this question can be defined as follows:

Explanation:

In point a:

When consumer interest decreases, => consumers begin and save less and more, => MPC decreases; => the "IS" curve becomes flatter; => "IS" turns inside. Currently, 'AD' shows together all the goods and financial sector, => as the 'IS' curve adjusts inside the industry, => the 'AD' would also change to the left.

In point b:

Take into account the SR models of "IS-LM" and "AD-AS." 

Therefore there is the case of a full job only at the beginning; => its optimum between "IS1" and "LM" in the "IS-LM" model; as well as the main equilibrium among "AD1" and "AS" in the "AD-AS" model "E1'," => the original equilibrium among "Y=Yf," "r=r1" and "P=P1." That now the consumer is reducing the confidence, => the 'IS' curve becomes shifting IMEI 'IS2,' => provided the 'LM' curve, that new balance is 'E2.' That's why the price in the SR is calculated, the AS will change =>, however, the AD also will shift the "AD2" side and "E2'" will become the equilibrium point in the "AD-AS" system, "r=r2 <r1" and "P=P1" throughout the new "Y=Y2 <Yf" balance.

Please find the graph file in the attachment.

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Answer:

Explanation:

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3 years ago
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The cost of raising capital through retained earnings is the cost of raising capital through issuing new common stock. The cost
Licemer1 [7]

Answer:

Explanation: Cost of equity can be defined as the return that the investors demand for bearing the risk of ownership in company's equity shares. It can be computed by using CAPM model which is represented as follows :-

cost of equity = risk free rate + beta *(market risk premium)

K_e=\:R_f\:+\beta \left ( Er_m \right )

K_e=\:3.86\%\:+\b0.92 \left ( 5.75\% \right )

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3 0
3 years ago
Assume that Amazon sells the MacBook Pro, a computer produced by Apple, for a retail price of $1,500. Amazon arranges its operat
tatuchka [14]

Answer: $150

Explanation:

Based on the information given in the question, the journal entry provided will be:

Debit Customer $1500

Credit Account Payable (Apple) $1350

Credit Commission income/Revenue $150

Therefore, the revenue that Amazon will recognize for the sale of one MacBook Pro is $150.

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3 years ago
A company reported beginning inventory of 100 units at a per unit cost of $25. It had the following purchase and sales transacti
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Answer:

14-Jan

Dr Trade Receivable $1,125

Cr Sales

14-jan

Dr Cost of sales 625

Cr Inventory 625

9-Apr

Dr Inventory 375

Cr Trade Payable 375

2-Sep

Dr Trade Receivable $2,500

Cr Sales $2,500

2 sep

Dr Cost of sales $1,375

Cr Inventory $1,375

Dec 31 No journal entry

Explanation:

Preparation to Records the month-end journal entries noted below, assuming the company uses a periodic inventory system

14-Jan

Dr Trade Receivable $1,125

Cr Sales (45*25)

14-jan

Dr Cost of sales[25*25] 625

Cr Inventory 625

9-Apr

Dr Inventory (25*$15) 375

Cr Trade Payable 375

2-Sep

Dr Trade Receivable $2,500

Cr Sales (50*50) $2,500

2 Sep

Dr Cost of sales $1,375

Cr Inventory $1,375

($2,500-$1,125)

Dec 31 No journal entry

8 0
3 years ago
Suppose that in a given month $40 million is deposited into the banking system while $50 million is withdrawn. Assume that the r
vladimir1956 [14]

Answer: Money Supply Decrease of $50 million.

Explanation:

$40 million was deposited while $50 million was withdrawn.

The net change in the banking system would therefore be,

= 40 - 50

= -$10 million

($10 million ) means that more money left than came in.

The money supply can be calculated as the net change multiplied by the money multiplier.

The Money Multiplier is denoted as 1/reserve requirement.

Change in Money Supply is,

= -10 million * 1/20%

= -$50 million

Going by the negative number it means that Money Supply reduces by $50 million.

8 0
3 years ago
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