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Cerrena [4.2K]
3 years ago
8

Please help will give Brain

Mathematics
1 answer:
Lunna [17]3 years ago
7 0
I think it’s the first option I’m sorry if that’s wrong
You might be interested in
X=-4+y and -2x-5y=15
Scrat [10]

Answer:

x=-5, y=-1

Step-by-step explanation:

Substitute x=-4+y into -2x-5y=15. So we have

-2(-4+y)-5y=15

8-2y-5y=15

-7y=7

y=-1

And x is -4+y so x= -4+(-1)= -5.

7 0
3 years ago
How do I do this activity, help is appreciated
Kitty [74]
This is fairly easy, all you need to do is write the ordered pairs for each graph, for these there are 5 ordered pairs for both.

In order to create the ordered pair all you need is this 'formula' of (x, y)

In the first graph 'input' would be the x value and output is the y value. So all you do is plug them into the formula.

(-10,-20)
(-5,-10)
(0,0)
(5,10)
(10,20)

Those are all the ordered pairs for graph A. Now just do the same thing for graph B.
8 0
4 years ago
A probability calculator is required on this problem; answer to six decimal places. Suppose we will spin the wheel pictured 400
KiRa [710]

Answer:

P(90< X< 110)= P(\frac{90-80}{8}

And we can find this probability with this difference:

P(90< X< 110)=P(z

And we can find the real value with the following excel code using the binomial distribution:

"=BINOM.DIST(110,400,0.2,TRUE)-BINOM.DIST(89,400,0.2,TRUE)"

And we got 0.118 a very close value from the value obtained using the normal approximation

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=400, p=0.2)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

np=400*0.2=80 \geq 10

n(1-p)=400*(1-0.2)=320 \geq 10

So we see that we satisfy the conditions and then we can apply the approximation.

If we appply the approximation the new mean and standard deviation are:

E(X)=np=400*0.2=80

\sigma=\sqrt{np(1-p)}=\sqrt{400*0.2(1-0.2)}=8

So then we can approximate the random variable as X \sim N(\mu = 80, \sigma = 8)

And we want this probability:

P(90< X< 110)

We can use the z score formula given by:

z = \frac{x -\mu}{\sigma}

And replacing we got:

P(90< X< 110)= P(\frac{90-80}{8}

And we can find this probability with this difference:

P(90< X< 110)=P(z

And we can find the real value with the following excel code using the binomial distribution:

"=BINOM.DIST(110,400,0.2,TRUE)-BINOM.DIST(89,400,0.2,TRUE)"

And we got 0.118 a very close value from the value obtained using the normal approximation

8 0
3 years ago
Find the value of X in the equation below 8x=2.4 (plz be fr)
Mkey [24]

Answer:

x=0.3

Step-by-step explanation:

divide 8 by both sides to isolate x

8x/8= 2.4/8

2.4/8= 0.3, leaving x by itself, giving us x=0.3

Hope this helps and have a great week!

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Write an equation of the line through each pair of points in slope-intercept form.
asambeis [7]

Answer:

1. F(x) = 5/4 x - 1

2. F(x) = 3x - 9

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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