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3 years ago

50/80 in its simplest form

Mathematics

2 answers:

Lady bird [3.3K]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

5/8 I belive

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps! ♥

Just divide both by 10

RideAnS [48]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

5/8 because the simplest fraction of 50/80 is 5/8.

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American households increasingly rely on cell phones as their exclusive telephone service. It is reported that 50.4% of American

OLga [1]

The variance of the binomial distribution of the number of households with landline service is 2.

<h3>What is the binomial probability distribution?</h3>

It is the probability of <u>exactly x successes on n repeated trials, with p probability</u> of a success on each trial.

The variance of the distribution is given by:

V(X) = np(1 - p)

In this problem, the parameters are given as follows:

n = 8, p = 0.504.

Hence the variance is given by:

V(X) = 8 x 0.504 x 0.496 = 2.

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377

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2 years ago

10) Determine which of the following are functions. 11) What are the domain and range of the following relation?

Sauron [17]

Answer:

10) The first 2 on the left are functions and the one on the top right is a function, but the bottom right is not.

11) Domain = (2, 8, -1, 0) Range = (5, -2, 4, 5)

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3 years ago

Sally needs 2 cups of flour to make her cake. She has 1 cups of flour. How much flour will she need to borrow to have enough to

bulgar [2K]

She needs one more cup of flower

7 0

3 years ago

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The government of the Republic of Lemon Island plans to transform their lemon-based economy into a tourism-based economy. They d

NNADVOKAT [17]

Step-by-step explanation:

dy/dt = (A − Be^(-t/5)) y

(a) First, find the general solution by separating the variables and integrating.

dy / y = (A − Be^(-t/5)) dt

dy / y = [A + 5B (-⅕ e^(-t/5))] dt

ln |y| = At + 5B e^(-t/5) + C

y = e^(At + 5B e^(-t/5) + C)

y = Ce^(At + 5B e^(-t/5))

Given that A = 0.06, B = 0.04, and y(0) = 50×10⁶ − 10×10⁶ = 40×10⁶:

40×10⁶ = Ce^(0.06(0) + 5(0.04) e^(-0/5))

40×10⁶ = Ce^(0.2)

C = 40×10⁶ e^(-0.2)

y = 40×10⁶ e^(-0.2) e^(0.06t + 0.2 e^(-t/5))

y = 40×10⁶ e^(-0.2 + 0.06t + 0.2 e^(-t/5))

(b) If A = 0.02 and B = 0, and there is no transformation (y(0) = 50×10⁶), then:

50×10⁶ = Ce^(0.02(0) + 0)

50×10⁶ = C

y = 50×10⁶ e^(0.02t)

Comparing to the answer from part (a):

40×10⁶ e^(-0.2 + 0.06t + 0.2 e^(-t/5)) = 50×10⁶ e^(0.02t)

e^(-0.2 + 0.04t + 0.2 e^(-t/5)) = 5/4

-0.2 + 0.04t + 0.2 e^(-t/5) = ln(5/4)

-5 + t + 5e^(-t/5) = 25 ln(5/4)

t + 5e^(-t/5) = 5 + 25 ln(5/4)

Solve with a calculator:

t = 9.886

The transformed economy surpasses the untransformed economy in the 10th year.

y = 40×10⁶ e^(-0.2 + 0.06(5) + 0.2 e^(-5/5))

y = 47.6×10⁶

The percent growth is:

(47.6×10⁶ − 40×10⁶) / 40×10⁶ × 100% = 19%

The growth rate is greater than 4%, so the current government can expect to be reelected.

3 0

3 years ago

Which of the following equations have infinitely many solutions? Choose all answers that apply: Choose all answers that apply: (

TiliK225 [7]

Answer:

All options are correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

In option (A), the given equation is

$x-37=x-37$

Add 37 on both sides.

$x-37+37=x-37+37$

$x=x$

Subtract x from both sides.

$x-x=x-x$

$0=0$

LHS=RHS for all values of x. It means equation x-37=x-37 has infinite many solutions.

Similarly.

In option (B), the given equation is

$73x-37=73x-37$

$73x=73x$

$0=0$

LHS=RHS for all values of x. It means equation 73x-37=73x-37 has infinite many solutions.

In option (C), the given equation is

$37x-37=37x-37$

$37x=37x$

$0=0$

LHS=RHS for all values of x. It means equation 37x-37=37x-37 has infinite many solutions.

In option (D), the given equation is

$74x-37=74x-37$

$74x=74x$

$0=0$

LHS=RHS for all values of x. It means equation 74x-37=74x-37 has infinite many solutions.

Therefore, all options are correct.

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers