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Pepsi [2]
2 years ago
6

5 + 14 x y = 9 x y - 5

Mathematics
2 answers:
LenKa [72]2 years ago
5 0

:) Have A Awesome Day

Anon25 [30]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

xy = -2

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve:

5 + 14xy = 9xy - 5

=> First subtract 9xy from each side of "="

5 + 5xy = -5

=> Now, subtract 5 from each side:

5xy = -10

=> Finally divide 5 on each side:

xy = -10/5

xy = -2

Hope this helps!

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P(-3,-5) and Q(1, -3) represent points in a coordinate<br> plane. Find the midpoint of PQ.
Karolina [17]

Step by step explanation :

The two points are ,

  • P( -3 , -5)
  • Q (1 , -3)

We can find the midpoint by finding the median of x coordinate and y coordinate .

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4 0
2 years ago
Pls help due in 10 mins
nikitadnepr [17]

Answer:

Area = 97.4 cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

a = 15 cm

        Area = \frac{ \sqrt 3}{4} a^2\\

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8 0
3 years ago
Bill Mason is considering two job offers. Job 1 pays a salary of $41,300 with $5,525 of nontaxable employee benefits. Job 2 pays
kupik [55]

Answer:

To Calculate the monetary value of both jobs, you would have to calculate the percent tax rate of each salary and add the nontaxable benefit after taxes.

Step-by-step explanation:

Reminder: since the 25% is a tax rate which we need to <u>subtract</u> from the salary, 75% would be what is left over from the salary after taxes.

<u>Job 1:</u>   Job 1 pays a salary of $41,000 and $5,525 of nontaxable benefits. So we calculate the 75% that is left after taxes and add the benefits afterwards.

(41,000 * 0.75) + 5,525 = 36,275

<em><u>So the monetary value of Job 1 would be $36,275</u></em>

<u>Job 2:</u> Job 2 pays a salary of $40,400 and $7,125 of nontaxable benefits. So we calculate the 75% that is left after taxes and add the benefits afterwards.

(40,400*0.75) + 7,125 = 37,425

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3 0
3 years ago
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MAXImum [283]
I belive it is the second option!
8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Prove :<br>sin²θ + cos²θ = 1<br><br><br>thankyou ~​
Gnom [1K]

Answer:

See below

Step-by-step explanation:

Here we need to prove that ,

\sf\longrightarrow sin^2\theta + cos^2\theta = 1

Imagine a right angled triangle with one of its acute angle as \theta .

  • The side opposite to this angle will be perpendicular .
  • Also we know that ,

\sf\longrightarrow sin\theta =\dfrac{p}{h} \\

\sf\longrightarrow cos\theta =\dfrac{b}{h}

And by Pythagoras theorem ,

\sf\longrightarrow h^2 = p^2+b^2 \dots (i)

Where the symbols have their usual meaning.

Now , taking LHS ,

\sf\longrightarrow sin^2\theta +cos^2\theta

  • Substituting the respective values,

\sf\longrightarrow \bigg(\dfrac{p}{h}\bigg)^2+\bigg(\dfrac{b}{h}\bigg)^2\\

\sf\longrightarrow \dfrac{p^2}{h^2}+\dfrac{b^2}{h^2}\\

\sf\longrightarrow \dfrac{p^2+b^2}{h^2}

  • From equation (i) ,

\sf\longrightarrow\cancel{ \dfrac{h^2}{h^2}}\\

\sf\longrightarrow \bf 1 = RHS

Since LHS = RHS ,

Hence Proved !

I hope this helps.

5 0
2 years ago
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