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Ket [755]
3 years ago
9

Explain your answer !! Have a nice day Will give braisnlt

Mathematics
1 answer:
Aleks [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The price of hot dog is $2.5 and that of a pretzel is $1.25.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the cost of hotdogs be h and that of pretzels be p.

So,

4h+3p = 13.75 ...(1)

and

2h+5p = 11.25 ...(2)

Multiply equation (2) by 2.

4h+10p = 22.5 ...(3)

Subtract equation (1) from (3).

4h+10p-(4h+3p) = 22.5-13.75

4h+10p-4h-3p = 8.75

7p = 8.75

y = 1.25

Put the value of y in equation (1).

4h+3(1.25) = 13.75

4h+3.75 = 13.75

4h = 13.75-3.75

4h = 10

h = 2.5

So, the price of hot dog is $2.5 and that of a pretzel is $1.25.

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Please help someone please
aliya0001 [1]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Factorising:

6x + 48

Take 6 as common, Therefore:

6(x +8)

Because:

6 * x = 6x

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therefore:

6x + 48 = 6(x + 8)

Hope it helped!!!

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What are the equivalent expressions of 1/5 ​
Firdavs [7]

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
Find the solution to 3 ^-x = x^ 3 + x to the nearest tenth.
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We can rewrite this by subtracting the right side to get

... 3^(-x) -x^3 -x = 0

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3 years ago
Annie is a basketball player who makes, on average, 65% of her freethrows. Assume each shot is independent and the probability o
Kamila [148]

Answer:

a) For this case we need that she fails the first 3 throws and the last one would be successful, so then if p represent the probability of success and 1-p the probability of fail we have this:

(1-p)^3 p = (1-0.65)^3 (0.65)= 0.0279

b) "=1-BINOM.DIST(99,140,0.65,TRUE)"

P(X \geq 100) = 1-P(X

c) \mu = np = 140*0.65= 91

\sigma = \sqrt{np(1-p)}= \sqrt{140*0.65(1-0.65)}=5.644

And we want this probability:

P(X \geq 100) = 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Part a

For this case we need that she fails the first 3 throws and the last one would be successful, so then if p represent the probability of success and 1-p the probability of fail we have this:

(1-p)^3 p = (1-0.65)^3 (0.65)= 0.0279

Part b

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=140, p=0.65)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 100) = 1-P(X

And we can use the following excel code:

"=1-BINOM.DIST(99,140,0.65,TRUE)"

P(X \geq 100) = 1-P(X

Part c

We need to check the conditions in order to use the normal approximation.

np=140*0.65=91 \geq 10

n(1-p)=140*(1-0.65)=49 \geq 10

So then we can use the normal approximation and we can find the mean and deviation like this:

\mu = np = 140*0.65= 91

\sigma = \sqrt{np(1-p)}= \sqrt{140*0.65(1-0.65)}=5.644

And we want this probability:

P(X \geq 100) = 1-P(X

5 0
3 years ago
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