Answer:
nothin
Explanation:
They don't work hard enough
oh no
our table
it's broken!!!!!!
Answer:
Depreciation expense is added back to net income when preparing the cash flow from operating activities section because depreciation represents a non cash reduction to net income. Depreciation is a non cash reduction because it notes down the the reduction in the value of an asset due to use as an expense and because the company isn't making any cash transactions due to depreciation of assets therefore it is a non cash expense and this is why it is added back to net income when preparing cash flow from operating activities.
Explanation:
Answer:
The alignment of numbers in the first part of the question is off. However, you solve this question as shown below. The correct answer is C. $1,124.
Explanation:
This is a one-time cashflow type of question where the principal amount is invested once and no other addition is made to the account. You use the future value formula to solve the result of the compounding effect at year 3.
FV formula;
FV = PV(1+r)^n
PV = 800
discount rate; r = 12% or 0.12
total duration of investment; n = 3
therefore; FV = 800(1+0.12)^3
FV = 800 * 1.404928
FV = 1123.94
To the nearest whole dollar, the amount will grow to $1,124
Answer:
D1 = $3.50
D2 = $3.50
D3 = $3.50
Ke = 10% = 0.1
Po = <u>D1</u> + <u>D2</u> + <u>D3
</u>
(1+ke) (1+ke)2 (1+ke)3
Po = <u>$3.50</u> + <u>$3.50</u> + <u>$3.50
</u>
(1+0.1) (1+0.1)2 (1+0.1)3
Po = $3.18 + $2.89 + $2.63
Po = $8.70
None of the above
Explanation:
In this scenario, we need to discount the dividend in each year by the required at rate of return of 10%. The aggregate of the price obtained as a result of discounting in year 1 to year 3 gives the current market price.
