Overall the Islamic empires in the Indian subcontinent failed to covert the population to Islam.
<h3>Why are there Muslims in India and Pakistan?</h3>
There are Muslims in India and Pakistan thanks to the conquest of the Indian subcontinent by several Muslim empires with the most notable being the Mughal empire.
However, regardless of how much the empires tried, they were unable to convert the majority of the population to Islam as most of them remained Hindu.
Find out more on the Mughal Empire at brainly.com/question/248928
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Answer:
The Dark Ages was referencing the period between the fall of the Roman Empire and the Renaissance which is the 5th – 14th centuries. It was implied that this period saw little scientific and cultural advancement...
Explanation:
The Dark Ages were not good for anyone unless you were on the bottom 90% of the society...then the falling of the Western Empire meant an improvement. Slaver vanishes, the burdens of taxes on you were decreased, society became less confusing, regional production improved and people were in most cases, taller and healthier than during the Late Imperial period. The fact that all Continental Barbarian nations adopted Latin language and Roman law and attempted to salvage what salvageable was, meant civilization did not collapse altogether. If you were on the top 10% of the society, the Dark Ages were a catastrophe; the Empire was gone, as was the international trade, literacy had collapsed with the papyrus trade and hyperinflation had meant monetary trade had collapsed and replaced with barter trade.
A establishing new laws
he created economic reforms and also made more government funded jobs like Hoover dam and golden gate bridge
