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Ludmilka [50]
3 years ago
7

Luzadis Company makes furniture using the latest automated technology. The company uses a job-order costing system and applies m

anufacturing overhead cost to products on the basis of machine-hours. The predetermined overhead rate was based on a cost formula that estimates $1,152,000 of total manufacturing overhead for an estimated activity level of 72,000 machine-hours.During the year, a large quantity of furniture on the market resulted in cutting back production and a buildup of furniture in the company's warehouse. The company's cost records revealed the following actual cost and operating data for the year:,Machine-hours 67,000Manufacturing overhead cost $551,000 Inventories at year-end: Raw materials $13,000 Work in process (includes overhead applied of $37,520) $139,300 Finished goods (includes overhead applied of $101,840) $378,100 Cost of goods sold (includes overhead applied of $396, 640) $1,472,600Required: 1. Compute the underapplied or overapplied overhead. 2. Assume that the company closes any underapplied or overapplied overhead to Cost of Goods Sold. Prepare the appropriate journal entry. 3. Assume that the company allocates any underapplied or over appliedoverhead proportionally to Work in Process, Finished Goods, and Cost of Goods Sold. Prepare the appropriate journal entry. 4. How much higher or lower will net operating income be if the underapplied or overapplied overhead is allocated to Work in Process, Finished Goods, and Cost of Goods Sold rather than being closed to Cost of Goods Sold?
Business
1 answer:
zmey [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Answer:

1. Overhead over applied= $521,000

2. Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

3. Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

4. Difference between the two CGS= $ 136,060

Explanation:

Predetermined Overhead  Costs $1,152,000

Estimated activity level of 72,000 machine-hours

Overhead rate= $ 1152,000/ 72,000= $ 16 per hour

Manufacturing overhead cost $551,000

Actual hours = 67,000

Overhead applied to WIP = 67,000 * 16= $ 1072,000

Overhead over applied= $ 1072,000 - $551000= $521,000

Part 2:

Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

The Cost of Goods Sold is credited and Factory overhead is debited.

Part 3:

Suppose the overhead is applied in the following ratio

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $37,520          7%   (37520/536,00*100%)

Finished Goods,              $101,840         19%      (101840/536,00*100%)

Cost of Goods Sold       $396, 640        74%     (396,640/536,00*100%)

Total                        $536,000     100%

The  overhead over applied  would be allocated in the following way applying the same ratio as determined above.

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

Part 4:

Cost of Goods Sold ( overhead applied of $396, 640) $1,472,600

Less    Overhead   overapplied      $ 521,000

CGS = $ 951,000

Cost of Goods Sold (overhead applied to WIP & FG) $1,472,600

Less   Overapplied Overhead $ 385,540

CGS=  $ 1087,060

Difference between the two CGS = $ 1087,060- $ 951,000= $ 136,060

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Therefore the amount of Wages Expense recorded on the next payday, Saturday, April 3 is $12,000

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Please find the complete question in the attached file.

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