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lukranit [14]
3 years ago
6

Use the fundamental counting principle to determine all the possible outcomes from rolling a die once then spinning the spinner.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Rudik [331]3 years ago
6 0
The answer is there are 6 possible outcomes: {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} Hope this helps!
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Adding and subtracting functions g(x) = 2x f (x) = −2x^3 + 2x Find g(x) + f (x)​
Andrei [34K]

Answer:

-2x³+4x

Step-by-step explanation:

g(x) + f(x)

(2x) + (-2x³+2x)

-2x³+4x

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following describes the parabola with the equation y = −x2 − 3x + 6?
seropon [69]

Answer:

C) The axis of symmetry is x = −1.5 and the vertex is (−1.5, 8.25).

Step-by-step explanation:

The axis of symmetry is x = − b/2a

= -(-3) / 2(-1)

= 3/(-2)

= -1.5

the vertex => x = -1.5

y= -(-1.5)²-3(-1.5)+6 =

-2.25 +4.5+6= 8.25

4 0
3 years ago
Rolls are being prepared to go to grocery stores. Divide 72 rolls into 2 groups so the ratio is 3 to 5.
tekilochka [14]
To do this, nice it to add 3 and 5, then divide 72 by the result of sum 3 and 5. Finally multiply it by 3 and by 5 to get the result.
Lets do this
3+5=8
72:8=9 - number of rolls in 1 "unit" 
9*3=27  - first group
9*5=45  - second group
8 0
3 years ago
Submit your solution. A=h/2(a+b); for h
Nimfa-mama [501]
A=h/2(a+b)
A=h/2a+2b
A(2a+2b)=h
8 0
3 years ago
a candy machine holds 500 pieces of candy, 20%, percent of which are blue. customers get an srs of 4 pieces of candy per purchas
Greeley [361]

Answer:

p(b = 1) = 0.4096 = 40.96%

Step-by-step explanation:

For each candy, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is blue, or it is not. The probability of a candy being blue is independent of any other candy. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

20% are blue

This means that p = 0.2

Sample of 4

This means that n = 4.

Which of the following would find p(b=1)?

P(X = 1). So

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 1) = C_{4,1}.(0.2)^{1}.(0.8)^{3} = 0.4096

So, p(b = 1) = 0.4096 = 40.96%

6 0
3 years ago
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