Answer:
One
Explanation:
Opportunity cost is the cost of the next best option forgone when one alternative is chosen over other alternatives.
If Japan decides to produce computers, it forgoes the opportunity of producing phones
Opportunity cost of one computer = 25/75 = 1 /3
Opportunity cost of producing 3 computers 3 ×(1/3)= 1 phone
I hope my answer helps you
Material requirements plus an allowance for normal inefficiencies are added together to determine the standard quantity of a direct material per unit of output.
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What is the standard quantity?</h3>
- The number of resources that should have been utilized to finish the period's output, as determined by multiplying the actual number of units produced by the standard quantity per unit.
- It is calculated by multiplying actual production units by the standard material quantity per unit.
- For example, during the month of March, a company manufactured 2000 items.
- The typical amount of material needed to produce one unit of output was 5 pounds.
- A standard amount against which a quantity is measured [e.g., gram, meter, second, liter, pascal; units of the aforementioned quantities].
- Chemists conduct many measurements.
- If the mass of a substance is discovered to be 6.0 grams, this can be stated mathematically. m = 6.0 g.
Therefore, material requirements plus an allowance for normal inefficiencies are added together to determine the standard quantity of a direct material per unit of output.
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The complete question is given below:
Material requirements plus an allowance for normal inefficiencies are added together to determine the ___________________ of a direct material per unit of output.
In general, if you have more types of deductions on your tax, the 1040 forms maybe more appropriate for you because it provide you with various options to claim deductions or credit.
The 1040Ez on the other hand only offer a simple format that only beneficial for taxpayers who made certain conditions.
Answer and Explanation:
a. The computation is shown below;
Cash bonus after tax is ($3,000 × (1 - 0.24) $2,280
And, non taxable fringe benefit is $2,300
So here he should use the nontaxable fringe benefit
b. Yes answer would be changed
Cash bonus after tax is ($3,000 × (1 - 0.12) $2,640
And, non taxable fringe benefit is $2,300
hence, the same is to be considered
