<span>The answer is that the fraction of 1/2 pint is 1 cup. To solve this you must know the equivalence between pints and cups, and use the notion of proportions. Two cups equal one pint. Then you can state this proportion: 1 pint / 2 cups = x pint / 1 cup. When you solve for x you get: x = 1/2. Which means that 1 cup is 1/2 of 1 pint. </span>
Answer:
1) 15
2) 10
3) 11
4) -4
5) -8
6) 12
7) 14
8) -6
Step-by-step explanation:
Substitute the values thats all lol, if u need a more detailed explanation just comment <3
F(x) = -6(1.02)^x has a y-intercept at f(x) = -6(1.02)^0
f(x) = -6(1)
f(x) = -6
f(x) has a y-intercept at (0, -6)
g(x) has a y-intercept at (0, -3)
Therefore, the y-intercept of f(x) is equal to 2 times the y-intercept of g(x).
Step-by-step explanation:
Answers B and C are true.
