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Kipish [7]
3 years ago
8

A store owner buys a case of 144 pens for $28.80. He sells the pens for $0.40 each. The owner claims that they marked the pens u

p by 50% before selling them. Prove that the owner calculated their markup correctly. If they did not, how much of a markup actually occurred?
Mathematics
1 answer:
stellarik [79]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: $0.3

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

The owner buys 144 pens for $28.80 i.e. each pen costs

\dfrac{28.80}{144}=\$0.2

owner sells the pen at $0.4 i.e. price marked up by

\Rightarrow \dfrac{0.4-0.2}{0.2}\times 100=100\%

So, the claim of the owner is incorrect

The actual increase in the price to get 50% markup

\Rightarrow 0.2\times (1+0.5)=\$0.3

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4 years ago
A machine that produces ball bearings has initially been set so that the true average diameter of the bearings it produces is .5
Elodia [21]

Answer:

7.3% percentage of the bearings produced will not be acceptable.

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider the provided information.

Average diameter of the bearings it produces is .500 inches. A bearing is acceptable if its diameter is within .004 inches of this target value.

Let X is the normal random variable which represents the diameter of bearing.

Thus, 0.500-0.004<X<0.500+0.004

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Use the Z score formula: \frac{X-\mu}{\sigma}

Therefore

\frac{0.496-0.499}{0.002}\leq z\leq \frac{0.504-0.499}{0.002}

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Now use the standard normal table and determine the probability of that a ball bearing will be acceptable.

P(-1.5\leq z\leq 2.5)=0.9938-0.0668=0.9270

We need to find the percentage of the bearings produced will not be acceptable.

So subtract it from 1 as shown.

1-0.9270=0.073

Hence, 7.3% percentage of the bearings produced will not be acceptable.

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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