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Viktor [21]
2 years ago
11

Your job pays you only once a year for all the work you did over the previous 12 months. Today, December 31, you just received y

our salary of $58,000 and you plan to spend all of it. However, you want to start saving for retirement beginning next year. You have decided that one year from today you will begin depositing 3 percent of your annual salary in an account that will earn 11 percent per year. Your salary will increase at 6 percent per year throughout your career.
Required: How much money will you have on the date of your retirement 40 years from today?
Business
1 answer:
ella [17]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The amount you will have on the date of your retirement 40 years from today is $1,904,087.20.

Explanation:

This can be determined using the formula for calculating the future value of growing annuity as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - (1 + g)^n) / (r - g)) ...................................... (1)

Where

FV = Future value or the amount on the date of retirement = ?

M = First annual deposit = Annual salary * Deposit percentage = $58,000 * 3% = $1,740

r = annual interest rate = 11%, or 0.11

g = salary growth rate = 6%, or 0.06

n = number of years = 40 years

Substituting all the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $1,740 * (((1 + 0.11)^40 - (1 + 0.06)^40) / (0.11 - 0.06))

FV = $1,740 * 1,094.30298736951

FV = $1,904,087.20

Therefore, the amount you will have on the date of your retirement 40 years from today is $1,904,087.20.

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bija089 [108]

The answer is false. The investment is profitable if the total of all the adjusted cash inflows and the outflows is higher than zero. The Positive net cash inflow additionally indicates that the rate of return exceeds the 5% discount rate.

The required rate of return (RRR) for a stock with a high beta in relation to the market should be higher for investors utilizing the inflows CAPM calculation. The Investors must be compensated for the increased level of risk associated with investing in the higher beta stock by the greater RRR in comparison to other the investments with low betas.

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4 0
1 year ago
FIN issues a $1000 par value bond that pays 7 precent annula interest and will mature in 14 years. The current market price for
Serjik [45]

Answer:

7.05 %

Explanation:

After tax cost of debt = interest x ( 1 - tax rate)

so, the initial step is to determine the interest rate :

The Bond Yield (i/yr) presents the market rate and this is what we want for our interest rate.

thus,

PV = -  [$950 - ($950 x14%)] = - $817<em>(remove floatation cost from market price)</em>

FV = $1000

PMT = $1000 x 7 % = $70.00

P/YR = 1

N = 14

i/yr = ??

Using a financial calculator to input the values as above, the Bond Yield (i/yr) will be 9.40 %

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After tax cost of debt = 9.40 % x (1 - 0.25)

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5 0
2 years ago
"A customer is long the Swiss Franc at a cost of $.60 per SF. The customer wishes to place a collar on the position using PHLX S
tia_tia [17]

Answer:

To create the collar, the customer would: <u>buy 1 PHLX 59 SF Call and sell 1 PHLX 61 SF Call.</u>

Explanation:

The meaning of a "collar" is that a put is bought at a strike price that is less than the price of the underlying instrument (this implies that a floor has been put on the price of the instrument); and that a call is disposed at a strike price which is higher than the price of the underlying instrument (this indicates that a ceiling above which the instrument will be called away has been created).

When a collar is put on the price, it indicates that the customer is majorly giving a guarantee for the underlying instrument's minimum and maximum price.

This should make the net cost of the collar to be close to zero due to the fact that the two contracts are "out the money" and also because the premium paid to buy the put is offset by the premium received when the call was sold.

Therefore, since customer in the question wishes to place a collar on the position using PHLX SF FLEX options, he would <u>buy 1 PHLX 59 SF Call and sell 1 PHLX 61 SF Call</u> to create the collar.

3 0
3 years ago
An economy enters an expansion and GDP increases from $34,000 to $40,000. What is the percent change in real GDP? Round your ans
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The percent change in real GDP is 17.65%

<h3>What is the GDP of an economy?</h3>

The gross domestic product (GDP) is the sum of all value contributed to a given economy. The value-added is the difference between the value of the products and services produced and the value of the goods and services required to produce them.

The percent change in real GDP can be calculated by using the formula:

\mathbf{=\dfrac{New \ GDP - Old \ GDP}{Old \ GDP } \times 100}

\mathbf{=\dfrac{40000 -34000}{34000 } \times 100}

= 17.65%

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6 0
2 years ago
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ANTONII [103]

Answer:

C) price lining

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