God loves all of you, remember that oK <3 32>2h+6h is
log (m + n) = log m+ log n and proved it m =n/n-1
Given;
If log (m + n) = log m+ log n
To show that the m =n/n-1
Now, According to the question:
We know that,
Log (m + n) = log m + log n
Log (m + n ) = log (mn). [log a + log b = log ab ]
Cancelling the log on both sides.
then,
m + n = mn
=> n = mn - m
=> n = m (n - 1)
=> m = n / n - 1
Hence Proved
log (m + n) = log m+ log n and proved it m =n/n-1
What is Logarithm?
A logarithm is the power to which a number must be raised in order to get some other number (see Section 3 of this Math Review for more about exponents). For example, the base ten logarithm of 100 is 2, because ten raised to the power of two is 100: log 100 = 2.
Learn more about Logarithm at:
brainly.com/question/16845433
#SPJ1
Answer:
2z + 33
Step-by-step explanation:
Add like terms like below:
(32 - 4) + (2z + 5) = 28 + 2z + 5
Combine like terms again:
(28 + 5) + 2z = 33 + 2z or 2z + 33
Step-by-step explanation:
5/6×12..1/5 x 100cm(1m)
i think so dont hate me