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m_a_m_a [10]
3 years ago
15

What property is (4y+1) x 0 = 0

Mathematics
2 answers:
jeka57 [31]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

zero product property

Step-by-step explanation:

any number times 0 = 0

(the property might be called something else at your school)

Gwar [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

5y

Step-by-step explanation:

if u have 4y+1 it just =5y

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3 years ago
-<br> 24x4 – 18x3 + 4x2 - 3x = 0<br> -<br> Solve
Snowcat [4.5K]

Answer:

x = 16.6666666667

Step-by-step explanation:

24x4 - 18x3 + 4x2 - 3x =0

24x4 = 96

18 x 3 = 54

4x2 = 8

96-54+8= 50

50/3 = 16.6666666667

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I need number 1 please and thank you
belka [17]

Answer:

It is the third one because of formula I² + 2I*II + II²

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4 0
3 years ago
Rewrite the equation below so that it does not have fractions.
lidiya [134]

Answer:

\frac{15}{20} x-2=\frac{8}{20}

Step-by-step explanation:

\frac{3}{4} x-2=\frac{2}{5}

3/4 and 2/5 have a common denominator which is twenty so you can rewrite the equation with just knowing that

\frac{3}{4} =\frac{15}{20}

\frac{2}{5} =\frac{8}{20}

\frac{15}{20} x-2=\frac{8}{20}

You can then multiply both sides by twenty to solve this equation.

Hope this helps.

4 0
3 years ago
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Suppose that a recent poll of American households about car ownership found that for households with a car, 39% owned a sedan, 3
Dimas [21]

Let the total number of cars = 100

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Number of other cars = 100 - 79 = 21.

Let A be the event of owning a sedan,

B be the event of owning a van and

C be the event of owning a sports car.

D be the event of owning other cars.

Then, p(A) = \frac{39}{100}

p(B)=\frac{33}{100} and

p(C) = \frac{7}{100}

p(D) = \frac{21}{100}

Now,

p(non selection of van) = p(A ∪ C ∪ D)

= p(A) + p(C) + p(D)

=\frac{39}{100} +\frac{7}{100} +\frac{21}{100}

=\frac{67}{100}

= 0.67

The probability of none of the three selections would be a van is:

0.67 × 0.67 × 0.67

= 0.300763

=0.301

Hence, the correct option is (D).

6 0
3 years ago
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