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professor190 [17]
2 years ago
7

The cash records of Crane Company show the following. For July:

Business
1 answer:
ad-work [718]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A. $3,560

B. $3,430

C. $4,120

D. $3,730

Explanation:

A. Calculation for the deposits in transit at July 31

July 1 Deposit in transit=$18,550 - ($15,720 - $730)

July 1 Deposit in transit=$18,550-$14,990

July 1 Deposit in transit= $3,560

Therefore ​the deposits in transit at July 31 were $3,560

B. Calculation for the outstanding checks at July 31

July 31 Outstanding checks=$18,540 - ($16,020 - $910)

July 31 Outstanding checks=$18,540-$15,110

July 31 Outstanding checks= $3,430

Therefore the outstanding checks at July 31 were $3,430

C. Calculation for the deposits in transit at August 31

August 31 Deposits in transit=$27,280 - $26,010 + $2,850

August 31 Deposits in transit= $4,120

Therefore the deposits in transit at August 31 were $4,120

D. Calculation for the outstanding checks at August 31

August 31 Outstanding checks=$24,460 - $23,110 + $2,380

August 31 Outstanding checks= $3,730

Therefore the outstanding checks at August 31 were $3,730

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Odeletta Corporation is considering an investment of $ 506 comma 000 in a land development project. The investment will yield ca
elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]

Answer:

$318,680

Explanation:

initial investment ($506,000)

cash flow year 1 = $212,000

cash flow year 2 = $212,000

cash flow year 3 = $212,000

cash flow year 4 = $212,000

cash flow year 5 = $212,000

discount rate 9%

present value of an ordinary annuity for 5 years and 9% discount rate = 3.89

the net present value = (yearly cash flow x annuity value) - initial investment = ($212,000 x 3.89) -$506,000 = $824,680 - $506,000 = $318,680

The net present value of an investment equals the difference between the present value of the cash flows generated by the investment minus the initial cost of the investment.

5 0
2 years ago
All of these are functions of money EXCEPT :________
tino4ka555 [31]

Answer:

c

Explanation:

it doesn't make sense to be a function of money

8 0
2 years ago
Stewart wants to invest some money that he just inherited. He found that his bank offers a savings account paying a guaranteed 3
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

Stewart will probably have to accept a higher level of risk .

Explanation:

Hence, a large-risk investment is one in which the risks of failure, or of losing some or all of the asset, are greater than the average.

  • These opportunities often offer investors the ability for greater returns in exchange for embracing the degree of risk associated with that.
  • In saving account he gets 3% rate of return but also gets a lower rate of risk and does not earn much.

If he invests his money in higher-risk fields like shares, he may get a higher profit.

3 0
3 years ago
La. A friend of yours, Grace, wants to purchase a house in five years. To save for the house, Grace decides to deposit $ 112,000
olchik [2.2K]

The balance in the savings account at the end of the 8th year (i.e., after 8 deposits) is  $99,256, and the interest earned on the 8 deposits is $27,256

The future value of annuity is a calculation that measures how a good deal a chain of fixed bills might be really worth at a specific date in the future whilst paired with a particular interest price. The word “value” in this term is the coin's potential that a sequence of future payments can gain.

The equation to find future value of the annuity:

Future Value = E ( ( 1 + r)^p - 1 ) / r

E = Annual deposit = $9,000

r = Interest rate = 9%

P = 8 years

FV = Amount available = 9,000 ( 1.09^8 - 1 ) / .09 = $99,256

Interest = 99,256 - 9000 * 8 =  $27,256

Future value is the value of a current asset at a future date based on an assumed fee of growth. The future price is vital to investors and economic planners, as they use it to estimate how an awful lot of funding made today may be worth it in the future.

Learn more about the future value of annuity here brainly.com/question/14702616

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4 0
1 year ago
QRM, Inc.'s marginal tax rate is 35%. It can issue 10-year bonds with an annual coupon rate of 7% and a par value of $1,000. Aft
puteri [66]

Answer:

4.87%

Explanation:

In this question , we are asked to calculate the appropriate after-tax cost of new debt for the firm to use in capital budgeting analysis.

PMT = 1000*7% = 70 (indicates the amount of interest payment)

Nper = 10 (indicates the period over which interest payments are made)

PV = 966 (indicates the present value)

FV = 1000 (indicates the future/face value)

Rate = ? (indicates the cost of debt)

After Tax Cost of Debt = Rate(Nper,PMT,PV,FV)*(1-Tax Rate) = Rate(10,70,-966,1000)*(1-.35) = 4.87%

6 0
2 years ago
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