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4 years ago

The following data for May has been provided by Mccawley Corporation:

Business

1 answer:

julsineya [31]4 years ago

8 0

Answer:

$3,920 favorable

Explanation:

For computing volume variance first we have to find out the overhead rate which is shown below:

Overhead rate is

= $78,400 ÷ 4,000 machine hours

= $19.6 per machine hour

And, the

Volume variance is

= (Normal capacity - standard hour allowed) × overhead rate

= (4,000 machine hours - 4,200 machine hours) × $19.6

= $3,920 favorable

We simply applied the above formula so that the volume variance could come

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Imagine you have $25.00. Your best friend’s birthday is coming up, and you’d like to get them a gift. You’ve also been wanting t

nydimaria [60]

Answer:

buy a new backpack because you need it more

Explanation:

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3 years ago

On January 1, Year 1, Pacific Corporation acquired 75% of Sand Corporation's 200,000 outstanding common shares for $2,850,000. O

Allisa [31]

Answer:

$112,500

Explanation:

The good will to be reported in the balance sheet of the Pacific Corporation as at December 31 shall be determined using the following mentioned method:

Cost to acquire share of the Pacific Corporation $2,850,000

Less:Net Assets Acquired of Sand Corporation

Sand Net Assets $3,000,000

Excess value of land $200,000

Excess value of equipment $150,000

Fair value of non-compete $300,000

$3,650,000 ($3,650,000)

Add:Net Assets portion of the Non controlling interest $912,500

($3,650,000*25%)

Good will $112,500

3 0

3 years ago

In the long run, profits in a monopolistically competitive market are zero because: a. of government regulations. b. of collusio

zvonat [6]

Answer:

c. firms are free to enter and exit the market.

Explanation:

A monopolistically competitive market is a market in which there are a lot of organizations that sell products that are similar and it tends to be easy to enter and leave the industry. Because it is easy for a company to enter the market and there is a lot of competition, in the long run the economic profit is zero. According to this, the answer is that in the long run, profits in a monopolistically competitive market are zero because firms are free to enter and exit the market.

The other options are not right because a monopolistically competitive market has zero profits because of its low entry barriers and amount of competitors not because of government regulations or an illegal agreement between organizations to control competition. Also, in a monopolistically competitive market the products are similar.

6 0

3 years ago

Dove, Inc., had additions to retained earnings for the year just ended of $630,000. The firm paid out $105,000 in cash dividends

Andreas93 [3]

Answer:

(A) Earnings per share = $1.19 per share, Dividends per share = $0.17 per share, and book value per share is $11.69 per share

(B) Market-to-book ratio = 2.52 times, and the price-earnings ratio is 24.79 times

(C) Price-sales ratio is 1.73 times

Explanation:

(A) Earning per share = (Net income) ÷ (Number of shares)

where,

Net income = Retained earnings + dividend paid

= $630,000 + $105,000

= $735,000

And, the number of shares are 620,000 shares

Now put these values to the above formula

So, the value would equal to

= ($735,000) ÷ (620,000 shares)

= $1.19 per share

Dividend per share = (Total dividend) ÷ (number of shares)

= ($105,000) ÷ (620,000 shares)

= $0.17 per share

Book value per share = (Total equity) ÷ (number of shares)

= $7,250,000 ÷ (620,000 shares)

= $11.69 per share

(B) Market to book ratio = (Market price per share) ÷ (book value per share)

= $29.50 ÷ $11.69

= 2.52 times

Price-earnings ratio = (Market price per share) ÷ (Earning per share)

= $29.50 ÷ $1.19

= 24.79 times

(C) Price sales ratio = (Market price per share) ÷ (Total sales per share)

where,

Total sales per share = (total sales) ÷ (Number of shares)

= (10,550,000) ÷ (620,000 shares)

= $17.01 per share

So, the price sales ratio = $29.50 ÷ $17.01

= 1.73 times

6 0

3 years ago

Why does the market portfolio include all risky assets?

Bezzdna [24]

Under the CAPM, all investors hold the market portfolio because it is the optimal risky portfolio. Because it produces the highest attainable return for any given risk level, all rational investors will seek to be on the straight line tangent to the efficient set at the steepest point, which is the market portfolio. Branliest would be nice (:

6 0

3 years ago