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3 years ago

11

Anup bought 50 glasses for Rs 1500 out of which 4 were broken. If he sold the rest of the glasses for Rs 35 each, how much profi

t or loss percentage did he bear?plz help me

1 answer:

babymother [125]3 years ago

8 0

Step-by-step explanation:

CP of 50 glasses is given 1500 so,

CP of one glass is 1550÷50 it mean the cost price of one glass is 30

now it have your question has said 4 glasses with broken so ,

1500-120

1380

<em>he</em><em> </em><em>sold</em><em> </em><em>each</em><em> </em><em>glasses</em><em> </em><em>at</em><em> </em><em>the</em><em> </em><em>cp</em><em> </em><em>of</em><em> </em><em>3</em><em>5</em><em> </em><em>so</em><em>,</em>

<em>4</em><em>6</em><em>×</em><em>3</em><em>5</em>

<em>1</em><em>6</em><em>1</em><em>0</em>

<em>now</em><em>,</em>

<em>profit</em><em> </em><em>=</em><em>SP-CP</em>

<em>1</em><em>6</em><em>1</em><em>0</em><em>-1500</em>

<em>=</em><em>1</em><em>1</em><em>0</em>

<em>Actual</em><em> </em><em>profit</em><em> </em><em>is</em><em> </em><em>1</em><em>1</em><em>0</em><em> </em><em>and</em><em> </em><em>profit</em><em> </em><em>percent</em><em> </em><em>=</em><em>actual</em><em> </em><em>profit</em><em>/</em><em>CP</em><em> </em><em>×</em><em>1</em><em>0</em><em>0</em>

<em>1</em><em>1</em><em>0</em><em>/</em><em>1</em><em>5</em><em>0</em><em>0</em><em>×</em><em>1</em><em>0</em><em>0</em>

<em>=</em><em>7</em><em>.</em><em>3</em><em>3</em><em>3</em><em>3</em><em>%</em>

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