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Vlad [161]
3 years ago
12

3. (a) According to law 138, what right did a man possess when his wife did not bear children?

History
2 answers:
Morgarella [4.7K]3 years ago
6 0
He shall give her money to the amount of her marriage price and he shall make good to her the dowry which she brought from her father's house and then he may divorce her.
White raven [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

<em>138. If a man wishes to divorce his wife who has not borne him children, he shall give her money to the amount of her marriage price and he shall make good to her the dowry which she brought from her father's house and then he may divorce her.</em>

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