Answer:
we recommnend to buy this bracket
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
Given tyhat
Buying cost of the machine = $33,000 = x
x_1 = $0.67
And, x_2 = $0.41
Now the break even point is
X = x ÷ (x_1 - x_2)
= $33,000 ÷ ($0.67 - $0.41)
= 126,923 units
Therefore
Probability (Demand > Break even point)
= 1 - 
($126,923 - 100,000) ÷ 10,000
= 1 - (2.69)
= 0.36%
where
= function of cumulative distribution of N (0,1)
Therefore the probability is that it makes economically the items would be lesser
Thus, we recommnend to buy this bracket
A bond issue consists of a number of bonds, usually in denominations of $1000 or $5000 and is sold to many different lenders.
<h3>What is a bond?</h3>
It should be noted that bonds are securities that can be readily bought and sold.
In this case, a bond issue consists of a number of bonds, usually in denominations of $1000 or $5000 and is sold to many different lenders.
Learn more about bonds on:
brainly.com/question/25965295
#SPJ1
management system characteristics recommend the use of:
Technical language
Answer:
c) $5.68
Explanation:
The worth of this stock today is the present value of the future dividends which is computed by discounting future dividends as well as the terminal value using the required rate of return of 14.5% as the appropriate discount rate as shown thus:
Year 1 dividend=$.65
Year 2 dividend=$0.70
Year 3 dividend=$0.75
terminal value of dividends=Year 3 dividend*(1+g)/Ke-g
g=dividend terminal growth rate=2%
Ke=required rate of return=14.5%
terminal value of dividends=$0.75*(1+2%)/(14.5%-2%)=$ 6.12
Share price=$.65/(1+14.5%)^1+$.70/(1+14.5%)^2+$.75/(1+14.5%)^3+$6.12/(1+14.5%)^3
share price=$5.68
Answer:
Option (B) $5,000
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Repayment of Loan = $50,000
Interest = 8%
Cash flow Probability
$65,000 70%
$45,000 30%
Tax rate = 0%
Now,
Interest on loan = 8% of $50,000
= $4,000
Expected value of cash flow = ∑[cash flow × Probability ]
= ( 0.7 × $65,000 ) + ( 0.3 × $45,000 )
= $45,500 + $13,500
= $59,000
The owner's expected cash flow after debt service
= Expected value of cash flow - Interest on loan - Repayment of Loan
= $59,000 - $4,000 - $50,000
= $5,000
Hence,
Option (B) $5,000
