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nikitadnepr [17]
3 years ago
11

PLS HELP ASAP WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!!!

Business
1 answer:
Lynna [10]3 years ago
8 0
The answer is D because the monopoly is the hardest to get into.
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According to the law of comparative advantage, both individuals and nations will be able to produce a larger joint output if eac
zzz [600]

Answer:

the low opportunity cost producer. 

Explanation:

A person or nation has comparative advantage in production if it produces at a lower opportunity cost when compared with other countries or people.

For example, let's assume country x produces either 10 Apples or 5 oranges in 1 hour while country y produces either 20 Apples or 2 oranges in one hour. The opportunity cost for country x of producing apples and oranges are 0.5 and 2 respectively. While for country y, the oopportunity cost of producing apples and oranges are 0.1 and 10 respectively.

Country y has an opportunity cost and comparative advantage in the production of Apples while country x has a comparative advantage in production of oranges.

I hope my answer helps you

5 0
3 years ago
A corporation issued $580000, 10%, 5-year bonds on January 1, 2020 for $626400, which reflects an effective-interest rate of 7%.
ioda

Answer:

The correct answer is option (B).

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

For Jan.1,2020 value = $626,400

Interest rate = 7%

So, we can calculate the amount of bond interest expense by using following formula:

Interest Expense = Carrying Value × Market Interest Rate

By putting the value of following

Interest expense = $626,400 × 7%

= $626,400 × 0.07

= $43,838

Hence, the amount of bond interest expense to be recognized on December 31, 2020, is $43,838.

7 0
3 years ago
Exceptional Electronics began operations September 1, 2019. The firm sells its merchandise for cash and on open account. Sales a
Yuliya22 [10]

Answer:

Since there is not enough room here, I prepared the general ledger, the accounts receivable ledger and the schedule of accounts receivable in an excel spreadsheet (attached).    

Explanation:

Download pdf
6 0
3 years ago
In mid-2015, Qualcomm Inc. had $13 billion in debt, total equity market value of $87 billion and an equity beta of 1.41. Include
lesya692 [45]

Answer:

A) Qualcomm's enterprise value= $95 billion

B) Asset Beta of Qualcomm’s business = 1.29

C) Qualcomm's WACC= 7.931%

Explanation:

The question relates to Capital asset pricing model (CAPM) which is used to calculate the required return from an investment given the level of risk associated with the investment. Now there are many risk that the level of cash flows and hence the required return from an investment such as systematic and unsystematic risks, business and finance risks etc.

The requirements of the question are as follows:

a)What is Qualcomm’s enterprise value?

b)What is the beta of Qualcomm’s business assets?

c)What is Qualcomm’s WACC?

The first two requirements will help us compute requirement C so we begin solving it form A as follows:

A) Qualcomm's enterprise value= ve- vd +va

ve= value of equity

vd= value of debt

va= value of asset

Qualcomm's enterprise value= $87b - $13b +$21b

Qualcomm's enterprise value= $95 billion

B) Beta of Qualcomm’s business assets:

Now beta is an index used to measure systematic risks (risks posed by macro-economic factors such as tax, interest rates etc). There are two beta indexes, asset beta and equity beta. Asset beta measures business risks only and equity beta measures both business and finance risks. In the question we already have equity beta so we need to calculate asset beta in order to compute Qualomm's WACC.

ba = be× ve/enterprise value

ba = asset beta

be= equity beta

ba= 1.41× $87÷$95

Beta of Qualcomm's business= 1.29

C) Qualcomm’s WACC:

The formula is as follows:

Ke= Rf + (market premium)× ba

ke = WACC

Rf= risk free rate of interest

ba= asset beta

ke= 2.9% + (3.9% ×1.29)

ke/WACC= 7.931%

8 0
3 years ago
The following costs and useful life data are associated with two new machines being considered at Arun Tech Inc.
Sidana [21]

Answer:

Machine B has a higher NPV therefore should be produced

Explanation:

The machine with the higher Net Present Value (NPV) should be produced .

NPV of Machine A

PV of cash flow

PV of annual profit = A × (1- (1+r)^*(-n)/r

A- 92,000, n- 11, r- 12%

PV = 92,000 × (1- (1.12^(-11)/0.12 = 546268.32

PV of salvage value = 13,000× 1.12^(-11)= 3737.189

NPV =  546268.320 + 3737.189  -250,000 = $300,005.50

NPV of Machine B

A- 103,00, n- 19, r- 12%

PV = 103,000 × (1- (1.12^(-19)/0.12= 758675.0165

Pv of salvage value = 26000× 1.12^(-19)= 3018.776199

NPV =758675.0165  + 3018.77  -460,000 = $301,693.79

Machine B has a higher NPV , therefore should be produced.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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