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Andrei [34K]
2 years ago
6

Given the exponential equation 2X = 8, what is the logarithmic form of the equation in base 10? (5 points)

Mathematics
1 answer:
Serga [27]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

x =

\frac{ log_{10}(8)  }{log_{10}(2) }

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Select the correct difference.<br> <br> -3z 5 - (-7z 5)<br> <br> -10z5<br> -4z5<br> 4z5<br> 4z
Alinara [238K]
<span>-10z5 is the answer. </span>
3 0
3 years ago
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Find the slope from the graph shown.<br><br> A. -1<br> B. undefined<br> C. 1<br> D. 0
zimovet [89]

Answer:

it is underfined because if you look closely there is no slope in the graph

8 0
2 years ago
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42:15 =<br> What is the ratio
vfiekz [6]
The ratio is 14:5, as 42 divided by 3 is 14 and 15 divided by 3 is 5.
8 0
2 years ago
Could the inverse of a non-function be a function? Explain or give an example.
Kitty [74]

Answer:

The inverse of a non-function mapping is not necessarily a function.

For example, the inverse of the non-function mapping \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\! is the same as itself (and thus isn't a function, either.)

Step-by-step explanation:

A mapping is a set of pairs of the form (a,\, b). The first entry of each pair is the value of the input. The second entry of the pair would be the value of the output.  

A mapping is a function if and only if for each possible input value x, at most one of the distinct pairs includes x\! as the value of first entry.

For example, the mapping \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0) \rbrace is a function. However, the mapping \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace isn't a function since more than one of the distinct pairs in this mapping include 1 as the value of the first entry.

The inverse of a mapping is obtained by interchanging the two entries of each of the pairs. For example, the inverse of the mapping \lbrace (a_{1},\, b_{1}),\, (a_{2},\, b_{2})\rbrace is the mapping \lbrace (b_{1},\, a_{1}),\, (b_{2},\, a_{2})\rbrace.

Consider mapping \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!. This mapping isn't a function since the input value 0 is the first entry of more than one of the pairs.

Invert \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\! as follows:

  • (0,\, 0) becomes (0,\, 0).
  • (0,\, 1) becomes (1,\, 0).
  • (1,\, 0) becomes (0,\, 1).
  • (1,\, 1) becomes (1,\, 1).

In other words, the inverse of the mapping \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\! would be \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (1,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\!, which is the same as the original mapping. (Mappings are sets. There is no order between entries within a mapping.)

Thus, \lbrace (0,\, 0),\, (0,\, 1),\, (1,\, 0),\, (1,\, 1) \rbrace\! is an example of a non-function mapping that is still not a function.

More generally, the inverse of non-trivial ellipses (a class of continuous non-function \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} mappings, including circles) are also non-function mappings.

3 0
2 years ago
Two ships leave the same port in different directions, forming a 120° angle between them. One ship travels 70 mi. and the other
kondaur [170]

Answer : Distance between the ships to the nearest miles = 106.03 ≈ 106 mi.

Explanation :

Since we have shown in the figure below :

a=70 mi.

b=52 mi.

c=x mi.

\text{Since two ships leaves the same port in different directions forming a }120\textdegree\text{angle between them.}

So, we use the cosine rule , which states that

 c^2=a^2+b^2-2ab.cosC\\\\x^2=70^2+52^2-2\times 70\times 52\times cos(120\textdegree)\\\\x^2=4900+2704-7280\times (-0.5)\\\\x^2=7604+3640\\\\x^2=11244\\\\x=\sqrt{11244}\\\\x=106.03

So, c = x= 106.03 mi.

Hence, distance between the ships to the nearest miles = 106.03 ≈ 106 mi.


8 0
3 years ago
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