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mariarad [96]
2 years ago
6

Solve for X. Show your work 2x + 6 = x - 5

Mathematics
1 answer:
irina1246 [14]2 years ago
8 0

2x + 6 = x - 5

2x - x = -5 - 6

x = -11 ← the end

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Rectangle 1 has length x and width y. Rectangle 2 is made by multiplying each dimension of Rectangle 1 by a factor of k, where k
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

a) Similar

b) Perimeter of rectangle 2 is k times the Perimeter of rectangle 1 (Proved Below)

c) Area of rectangle 2 is k^2 times the Area of rectangle 1 (Proved Below)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Rectangle 1 has length = x

Rectangle 1 has width = y

Rectangle 2 has length = kx

Rectangle 2 has width = ky

(a) Are Rectangle 1 and Rectangle 2 similar? Why or why not?

Rectangle 1 and Rectangle 2 are similar because the angles of both rectangles are 90° and the sides of Rectangle 2 is k times the sides of Rectangle 1. So sides of both rectangles is equal to the ratio k.

(b) Write a paragraph proof to show that the perimeter of Rectangle 2 is k times the perimeter of Rectangle 1.

Perimeter of Rectangle = 2*(Length + Width)

Perimeter of Rectangle 1 = 2*(x+y) = 2x+2y

Perimeter of Rectangle 2 = 2*(kx+ky) = 2kx + 2ky

                                          = k(2x+2y)

                                          = k(Perimeter of Rectangle 1)

Hence proved that Perimeter of rectangle 2 is k times the perimeter of rectangle 1.

(c) Write a paragraph proof to show that the area of Rectangle 2 is k^2 times the area of Rectangle 1.

Area of Rectangle = Length * width

Area of Rectangle 1 = x * y

Area of Rectangle 2 = kx*ky

                                  = k^2 (xy)

                                  = k^2 (Area of rectangle 1)

Hence proved that area of rectangle 2 is k^2 times the area of rectangle 1.

4 0
3 years ago
The diagram rerpesents responses to a survey that include statements p and q . Which statement is true?
BARSIC [14]

Answer:

C. The number of responces p\vee q is also 46

Step-by-step explanation:

Note that:

  • p\wedge q means both p and q must hold;
  • p\vee q means either p or q must hold.

From the diagram,

  • the number of responses p\wedge q is 46;
  • the number of responces p\vee q is also 46;
  • the number of responces p\setminus q is 0;
  • the number of responces which are neuther p nor q is 20.

So, you can state that the correct answer is C

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help!!!
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer: Hello! I believe your answer would be 162.

Step-by-step explanation: So the formula for Area on a rectangle is WxL. So length will be 9. But if you notice on the scale rectangle the width is the length times two. So the length on the real garden is 18.

6 0
3 years ago
The circumference of a circle is 15 meters. Determine the diameter. Use 3 for pie.
erik [133]

Answer:

4.77

if u use 3 for pie its 5

Step-by-step explanation:

formula is d=c/pie

so d=15/pie

d=4.77

5 0
3 years ago
Use the Trapezoidal Rule, the Midpoint Rule, and Simpson's Rule to approximate the given integral with the specified value of n.
Vera_Pavlovna [14]

Split up the integration interval into 4 subintervals:

\left[0,\dfrac\pi8\right],\left[\dfrac\pi8,\dfrac\pi4\right],\left[\dfrac\pi4,\dfrac{3\pi}8\right],\left[\dfrac{3\pi}8,\dfrac\pi2\right]

The left and right endpoints of the i-th subinterval, respectively, are

\ell_i=\dfrac{i-1}4\left(\dfrac\pi2-0\right)=\dfrac{(i-1)\pi}8

r_i=\dfrac i4\left(\dfrac\pi2-0\right)=\dfrac{i\pi}8

for 1\le i\le4, and the respective midpoints are

m_i=\dfrac{\ell_i+r_i}2=\dfrac{(2i-1)\pi}8

  • Trapezoidal rule

We approximate the (signed) area under the curve over each subinterval by

T_i=\dfrac{f(\ell_i)+f(r_i)}2(\ell_i-r_i)

so that

\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac3{1+\cos x}\,\mathrm dx\approx\sum_{i=1}^4T_i\approx\boxed{3.038078}

  • Midpoint rule

We approximate the area for each subinterval by

M_i=f(m_i)(\ell_i-r_i)

so that

\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac3{1+\cos x}\,\mathrm dx\approx\sum_{i=1}^4M_i\approx\boxed{2.981137}

  • Simpson's rule

We first interpolate the integrand over each subinterval by a quadratic polynomial p_i(x), where

p_i(x)=f(\ell_i)\dfrac{(x-m_i)(x-r_i)}{(\ell_i-m_i)(\ell_i-r_i)}+f(m)\dfrac{(x-\ell_i)(x-r_i)}{(m_i-\ell_i)(m_i-r_i)}+f(r_i)\dfrac{(x-\ell_i)(x-m_i)}{(r_i-\ell_i)(r_i-m_i)}

so that

\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac3{1+\cos x}\,\mathrm dx\approx\sum_{i=1}^4\int_{\ell_i}^{r_i}p_i(x)\,\mathrm dx

It so happens that the integral of p_i(x) reduces nicely to the form you're probably more familiar with,

S_i=\displaystyle\int_{\ell_i}^{r_i}p_i(x)\,\mathrm dx=\frac{r_i-\ell_i}6(f(\ell_i)+4f(m_i)+f(r_i))

Then the integral is approximately

\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2}\frac3{1+\cos x}\,\mathrm dx\approx\sum_{i=1}^4S_i\approx\boxed{3.000117}

Compare these to the actual value of the integral, 3. I've included plots of the approximations below.

3 0
3 years ago
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