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Serga [27]
3 years ago
6

The application of overhead has resulted in a $5,600 credit balance in the factory overhead account, and this amount is not mate

rial. the entry to dispose of this remaining factory overhead balance is: select one:
a. debit cost of goods sold $5,600; credit factory overhead $5,600.
b. debit factory overhead $5,600; credit cost of goods sold $5,600.
c. debit factory overhead $5,600; credit work in process inventory $5,600.
d. debit work in process inventory $5,600; credit factory overhead $5,600.
e. no entry is needed.
Business
1 answer:
FromTheMoon [43]3 years ago
4 0

when manufacturing overhead has a credit balance, overhead is overapplied. Overapplied overhead means that the overhead assigned to work in process is greater than the overhead incurred. Also, since the amount is immaterial, it should be closed in cost of goods sold.

The adjusting entry for the overapplied over-head is:

b. debit factory overhead $5,600; credit cost of goods sold $5,600.

After posting this entry the factory overhead account will have a zero balance.

Hope it helps!

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A series of five payments in constant dollars, beginning with $6,000 at the end of the first year, are increasing at the rate of
beks73 [17]

Answer:

The equivalent present worth of the series is $27,714.

Explanation:

We have a series of five payments (n=5), paid at the end of the year, starting with $6,000 and increasing at a rate of 5% per year.

The inflation rate is 4% and the market interest rate is 11%.

The equivalent present worth of the series, where we take into account yearly increments and discount the value by inflation and interest rate, is:

PV=\sum_{k=1}^5\frac{C_0(1+h)^{n-1}}{(1+i)^n(1+r)^n} \\\\PV=\frac{C_0}{(1+h)} \sum_{k=1}^5(\frac{(1+h)}{(1+i)(1+r)})^n

Where:

h: increment in the payments (5%)

i: rate of inflation (4%)

r: market interest rate (11%)

Then,

\frac{(1+h)}{(1+i)(1+r)}=\frac{1.05}{1.04*1.11}=\frac{1}{1.10} =0.91 \\\\\\PV=\frac{C_0}{(1+h)} \sum_{k=1}^5(\frac{(1+h)}{(1+i)(1+r)})^n\\\\PV=\frac{6,000}{1.05} \sum_{k=1}^50.91^n\\\\PV=5,714.3*(0.91+0.83+0.75+0.68+0.62)\\\\PV=5,714.3*3.8\\\\PV=21,714.3

7 0
3 years ago
How should a loss contingency that is reasonably possible and for which the amount can be reasonably estimated be reported
guajiro [1.7K]

Answer:

as a footnote in financial statements or on the balance sheet

Explanation:

A loss contingency can be defined as the situation or occurrence in which there is uncertainty about an entity but that will be resolved when a/some future situation occurs or not.

Simply put, a loss contingency can be said to be loss of an entity that can be resolved later in future by the occurrence or not of an event.

When a loss can be reasonably estimated as seen from the question, it should be written as a footnote on a financial statement or on a balance sheet.

cheers.

5 0
3 years ago
Ann Hopkins borrowed $60,000 for her child’s education. She must repay the loan at the end of 8 years in one payment with 512% i
mart [117]

The Maturity Value that Ann must pay is $89,461.

Assuming the rate of interest is compounded annually.

Given,

Principal value = $60,000 = P

Rate of interest = 5.12% = i

Number of years = 8 = T

Since maturity value = Amount

Now, using the formula for calculating the amount,

Amount = P × {(1+i)^T}

Now, substituting the given values in the above formula for amount we get,

Amount = $60,000 × {(1+0.0512)^8}

             = $60,000 × {(1.0512)^8}

             = $60,000 × 1.49101776418

             = $89,461.0658

             = $89,461 (Approximately)

Hence, The Maturity Value that Ann must pay is $89,461.

Learn more about maturity value:

brainly.com/question/9099365

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7 0
2 years ago
Total variable costs ________ with decreasing output. A) always increase B) always decrease C) initially increase and then decre
lbvjy [14]

Answer:

The answer is B.

Explanation:

Total variable cost always increases as output(unit of production) increases. And it also decreases with decreasing output(unit of production).

Variable cost is different from fixed cost in that it changes with output.

6 0
3 years ago
Robert has a monthly income of $1,650.00. His monthly mortgage payment is $675.00. What percentage of his income does Robert spe
makkiz [27]

Answer:B.40.9%

Explanation:

If $675 spend on mortgage and his monthly income is $1650

So the percentage will be:

$675 / $1650 × 100

= 0.409 ×100

= 40.9%

6 0
3 years ago
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